The client taking androgens and warfarin (Coumadin) may experience an increased risk of bleeding due to the interaction between the two medications. Androgens can increase the effects of warfarin, causing the client to have a higher chance of bleeding.
Therefore, it is important for the client to have regular monitoring of their coagulation levels and to inform their healthcare provider of any symptoms of bleeding.
the effect of androgens and warfarin (coumadin) on a client's coagulation.
1. Androgens: These are a group of hormones, including testosterone, that are responsible for male characteristics and reproduction. Androgens can potentially increase the risk of blood clot formation.
2. Warfarin (Coumadin): This is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clot formation by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors. Warfarin is used to treat and prevent blood clots in various medical conditions.
When a client is taking both androgens and warfarin, there can be an interaction between these two medications. The androgens may counteract the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by increasing the risk of blood clot formation. This may result in reduced effectiveness of warfarin and a higher risk of blood clots for the client.
It is crucial for the client's healthcare provider to closely monitor their coagulation status and adjust the warfarin dosage as needed to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect while taking androgens.
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When a client is taking both androgens and warfarin (Coumadin), the effect on their coagulation can be complex.
What is warfarin?
Warfarin is an anticoagulant, which means it works to prevent blood clots by slowing down the clotting process. Androgens, on the other hand, are male sex hormones that can potentially counteract the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Combination of warfarin and androgens:
The combination of these two medications may result in reduced effectiveness of warfarin, leading to a higher risk of blood clot formation. This is because androgens can increase the production of clotting factors in the liver, counteracting warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
In summary, when a client is taking both androgens and warfarin, the interaction between the two medications may decrease the effectiveness of warfarin as an anticoagulant, potentially increasing the risk of blood clot formation. Close monitoring and dose adjustments may be necessary to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect.
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Can someone make up a classical conditioning example for me ?
The resulting pain due to pleural fluid being unable to prevent friction between opposing pleura surfaces is known as
The resulting pain due to pleural fluid being unable to prevent friction between opposing pleura surfaces is known as pleurisy or pleuritic pain.
What is the pain called?Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura, a thin membrane that covers the inside of the chest cavity and the outside of the lungs. A small amount of pleural fluid normally lubricates the pleura, enabling the lungs to move freely and painlessly during breathing.
However, pleural inflammation can disrupt or limit the generation of pleural fluid, which causes the inflamed pleural surfaces to rub against one another.
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The patient is to receive 300 units of heparin subcut daily. The pharmacy sends the following vial of heparin. Select the statement that applies to the administration of this ordered dose of heparin.
The patient will receive 0.5 ml of heparin subcut daily.
The patient is supposed to receive 300 units of heparin subcutaneously (Subcut) on a daily basis. The pharmacy dispatches a vial of heparin, and the student is asked to pick the statement that applies to the administration of the ordered dose of heparin. Since the vial of heparin only contains 5000 units of heparin in 1.0 ml, 300 units of heparin would be present in 0.6 ml of the solution. As a result, the patient will receive 0.5 ml of heparin subcut daily.
The subcutaneous (Subcut) is a method of administering medication under the skin, and it is also known as the hypodermic route of administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant drug that is used to prevent blood clots. It is a common drug that is used to avoid the formation of blood clots in veins, lungs, or the heart. Heparin is used to prevent or treat clots that could lead to complications such as a stroke or heart attack.
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Summarize how C0vid interacts with the cells in the airway and lungs and is related to disease symptoms. Be sure to use the following terms, highlighting each in your paragraph.
SARS-CoV-2
ACE2 receptor
epithelial cells
Answer:
The new coronavirus latches its spiky surface proteins to receptors on healthy cells, especially those in your lungs. Specifically, the viral proteins bust into cells through ACE2 receptors. Once inside, the coronavirus hijacks healthy cells and takes command. Eventually, it kills some of the healthy cells.
ExplanatI0N:
When an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, droplets or tiny particles called aerosols carry the virus into the air from their nose or mouth. Anyone who is within 6 feet of that person can breathe it into their lungs
When working together to move an animal, what is the most important thing?
O A) A good grip
OB) Communication
OC) Staying quiet so the animal doesn't get scared
OD) None of the answers are correct
In the diagnosis of insomnia, the clinician takes into account several factors, one of which is the patient's
a.
sleeping muscle movement as measured by an electromyogram.
b.
amount of sleep time that the patient believes is appropriate.
c.
behavior while awake.
d.
objective measure of the polysomnographic (PSG) evaluation.
In the diagnosis of insomnia, the clinician takes into account several factors, one of which is the patient's behavior while awake.
Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or experiencing non-restorative sleep. When diagnosing insomnia, clinicians consider various factors to understand the patient's sleep patterns and related symptoms. One of these factors is the patient's behavior while awake.
Understanding the patient's behavior while awake helps the clinician assess various aspects related to insomnia. This may involve evaluating factors such as the patient's sleep hygiene practices, daytime activities, and lifestyle choices that could impact their sleep quality. For example, the clinician may inquire about the patient's daily routine, including their exercise habits, caffeine or alcohol consumption, and exposure to electronic devices close to bedtime.
By examining the patient's behavior while awake, the clinician can identify any potential factors that may contribute to their insomnia. This information provides valuable insights into the patient's lifestyle and habits, allowing the clinician to develop a comprehensive treatment plan tailored to the individual's needs.
It's worth noting that while factors such as sleeping muscle movement measured by an electromyogram (a) and the patient's belief about appropriate sleep time (b) may be considered in certain cases, the patient's behavior while awake (c) is a more directly relevant factor in diagnosing insomnia. Additionally, an objective measure of the polysomnographic (PSG) evaluation (d) can provide valuable information about the patient's sleep architecture and physiological changes during sleep but may not directly assess their behavior while awake.
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which reason would the nurse document as nonadherence for the client not adhering to the prescribed antibiotic therapy? hesi
The nurse would document nonadherence for the client not adhering to the prescribed antibiotic therapy if the client fails to take the medication as prescribed or discontinues the medication before the full course of treatment is completed.
Nonadherence is a term used to describe the failure of a patient to follow the recommended or prescribed treatment plan. In the case of antibiotic therapy, nonadherence may occur if the client does not take the medication as prescribed or stops taking it before completing the full course of treatment.
This can lead to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, a worsening of symptoms, and other complications. It is important for the nurse to document nonadherence to ensure that the healthcare team is aware of the situation and can take appropriate action to address it.
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Help pls
Explain how macronutrients are different than micronutrients. Please provide details and/or examples
Answer:
Macronutrients are the nutrients your body needs in larger amounts, namely carbohydrates, protein, and fat. These provide your body with energy, or calories. Micronutrients are the nutrients your body needs in smaller amounts, which are commonly referred to as vitamins and minerals.Feb 14, 2020
Explanation:
Answer:
I'm also stuck on that one
Triglycerides are composed of _____.
(a) a 3
3 carbon alcohol
(b) 3
3 long chain fatty acids
(c) phosphate groups
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) (a), (b), and (c).
Triglycerides are composed of three long chain fatty acids and a three-carbon alcohol called glycerol. Therefore, the correct option is d) both (a) and (b).
Triglycerides, also known as triacylglycerol's, are a type of lipid molecule that is found in many types of organisms, including plants and animals. They are the main component of body fat and serve as a long-term energy storage source in the body. Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acid molecules bound to a glycerol molecule through ester linkages. The length and saturation of the fatty acid chains can vary, giving rise to different types of triglycerides with different physical properties. Triglycerides are transported in the bloodstream by lipoproteins and can be broken down by enzymes called lipases to release energy for the body to use. High levels of triglycerides in the blood have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
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Antitussives and antidiarrheals that contain small amounts of opioids, such as codeine, belong to which schedule of controlled substances?.
Answer:
Schedule V drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes.
Explanation:
Choose a common injury you see in sports. research the injury and write one-two paragraph describing what might occur when this injury is present
Answer:
Ankle sprain
Explanation:
I would say an ankle sprain because when your ankle is forced to move out of its normal position which will cause one or more of the ankles ligaments to stretch. You can tear your ankle severely or partially. some causes of a ankle sprain are: A fall causing your ankle to twist, or landing on it awkwardly after running, jumping, or pivoting.
It has been found that a carrier is better able to survive diseases with severe diarrhea. What would happen to the frequency of the EcG if there was an epidemic of cholera or other type of diarrhea producing disease
Answer:
The frequency of “c” would increase.
Explanation:
Remember, in the scenario, we are told the carrier survives better in an environment with severe diarrhea.
Hence, it is thus logical to expect the frequency of "c" to increase in an environment where there was an epidemic of cholera.
andrew returned for his follow-up visit last week with increased pain and edema in his right knee and was scheduled for an arthroscopy. he presents to the surgical center today for a right knee diagnostic arthroscopy with synovial biopsy. anesthesia is being performed on this 72-year-old male patient by a crna with medical supervision by a physician. other than osteoarthritis, andrew has essential hypertension, which is well-controlled. postoperatively the patient was placed in a prefabricated canvas longitudinal knee immobilizer
The question is incomplete however the correct question is as follows:
What is the correct CPT code modifier to use?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - 51 and 59.
Explanation:
Modifier 51 and modifier 59 are two common code modifier for arthroscopy. the code 51 tells that the same physician is performing multiple arthroscopy or other procedure for different clients at the same session except E/M services.
On other hand modifier 59 that indicates that the procedure normally not reported together but in specific conditions that meet with the criteria of code for reporting separately. It may also suggest that same provider should not perform the procedure same day.
Arthroscopy, knee, diagnostic, with or without synovial biopsy -29870 is a separate procedure.
A young child with leukemia is scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy. The parents have been instructed to apply anesthetic cream to the site prior to the biopsy. Which is the best nursing instruction for the parents
The best nursing instruction for the parents is to apply the anesthetic cream to the site as directed by the healthcare provider and to follow any additional instructions provided.
Anesthetic cream can be used to numb the area before a bone marrow biopsy to minimize discomfort or pain during the procedure. The healthcare provider will typically provide specific instructions on how to apply the cream, such as how much to use and how long before the biopsy to apply it. It is important for the parents to follow these instructions carefully to ensure that the anesthetic cream is used safely and effectively. Additionally, the parents should report any adverse reactions to the healthcare provider, such as redness or swelling at the site, or any unusual symptoms experienced by the child after the biopsy.
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What is the immobilization for a routine MRI?
Immobilization is an important aspect of a routine MRI procedure to prevent movement and ensure accurate images are produced. Different methods of immobilization depends on the area of the body being imaged.
During a routine MRI, patients are often immobilized to prevent any involuntary movement which could distort the image. This is usually achieved through the use of straps or foam pads that secure the patient in place on the MRI table.
The immobilization helps ensure that the images produced during the MRI are clear and accurate. The specific type of immobilization used during an MRI can vary depending on the area of the body being imaged. For example, when imaging the head and neck, a headrest may be used to hold the head in place.
When imaging the spine, straps or a vacuum cushion may be used to keep the patient still. It's worth noting that while immobilization can be uncomfortable, it is generally not painful and is a necessary part of ensuring the MRI results are reliable and accurate.
The duration of the immobilization period during an MRI also varies depending on the area being scanned but generally ranges from 15 minutes to an hour.
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2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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The health care team’s goal is to promote the overall wellness of the patient.
1 - interdisciplinary approach
2 - isolated approach
3 - intermediary approach
4 - holistic approach
Answer:
Intermediary approach
Explanation:
Answer:
D) Holistic approach
Explanation:
Which sample is not collected by sterile needle aspiration? A. Blood B. Urine C. Cerebrospinal fluid. D. Tissue fluids. E. All of the choices are collected
The sample that is not collected by sterile needle aspiration is Urine. Correct option s B.
Sterile needle aspiration is a technique used to collect samples of fluids or tissues for diagnostic purposes. It involves using a sterile needle to withdraw fluid or extract tissue from a specific site. Blood (choice A), cerebrospinal fluid (choice C), and tissue fluids (choice D) can all be collected using sterile needle aspiration.
However, urine (choice B) is typically collected through a different method, such as midstream urine collection or using a sterile urine collection cup. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Urine.
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What requirements do you think need to be met in order to become a nursing assistant? Check all that apply.
A. completing a competency evaluation
B. taking a state-approved training course
C. obtaining a listing on the state nursing assistant registry
D. applying for a job at the agency
Answer:
all of them
Explanation:
Answer:
All A B C D
Explanation:
A worker prepares chicken salad with chicken that was cooked 3 days ago. How should the food worker label the salad? 1. With the date in 3 days 2. With the date in 5 days
Answer:
with the date in 3 days
Explanation:
i checked quizlet.
A 72-year old woman is admitted with shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. The client's vital signs are as follows: Temp: 37 C (98.6 F), BP 162/94, pulse 92, and respiratory rate 26 and shallow. Oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Client states she has been sleeping in a recliner chair for the past three nights because of difficulty breathing. She also states she has lower back pain with a pain level of "5" on a 0-10 pain scale.Upon assessment, the client states, "I am having difficulty breathing. I can't catch my breath when I walk a few feet." Client is oriented to person, place and time. She has a productive cough. Crackles and wheezing heard upon auscultation, diminished breath sounds at bases; capillary refill is four seconds, and slight clubbing of fingers is noted. Ankles and feet are swollen, 2+ pitting edema noted. The client has no known drug allergies. Medical history reveals hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (emphysema). The client takes the following medications:• Furosemide 20 mg po daily• Metoprolol 50 mg po daily • Amlodipine besylate 5 mg po daily• Atorvastatin calcium 10 mg po daily• Albuterol 2 inhalations every 4-6 hours prnThe client is placed on 2 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula. Arterial blood gases (ABGS) are drawn. The client is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and is given acetaminophen 650 mg by mouth for her pain level of "5".Questions: 1. How should the nurse position this client and why?
2. List four signs and symptoms of respiratory distress the nurse may observe in a client with COPD.
3. The client wants her nasal oxygen turned up because she is experiencing increased difficulty breathing. What
should the nurse say to the client? 4. Why is it important to address the client's pain level?
5. List three non-pharmacologic interventions that the nurse could implement to help decrease the client's difficulty breathing.
6. What are the normal ranges for each of the ABG components in an adult: pH, partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate (HCO3), partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) and oxygen saturation (SaO2)?
7. What ABG results would the nurse expect in a client with COPD?
8. Analyze each set of ABG results:
1. pH=7.32 PaCO2-58 mmHg PaO2=60 mmHg
HCO3-32 mEq/L
2. pH=7.22 PaCO2-35 mmHg HCO3=20 mEq/L PaO2=80 mmHg
3. pH=7.52 pCO2-28 mmHg HCO3=24 mEq/L
PaO2=70 mmHg
9. List two nursing diagnoses for this client?
The nurse should position the client in a high Fowler's position, which allows for maximum lung expansion and oxygenation.
Depending on how comfortable the client is, this position involves raising the head of the bed to an angle between 45 and 90 degrees. This position makes breathing easier for the client and less taxing on the diaphragm.
The following are four indicators of respiratory distress in a client with COPD: breathing issues or shortness of breath, gasping for air or wheezing, chest discomfort or tightness, Lips or nails that are bluish in color (cyanosis).
The client should be informed by the nurse that increasing the oxygen flow rate may actually be harmful and lead to breathing cessation. The nurse should reassure the patient that they are keeping an eye on their oxygen saturation levels and that they will change the flow rate as necessary to keep their oxygenation levels adequate.
It's crucial to address the client's pain level because it can speed up their breathing and worsen respiratory distress. Anxiety and stress brought on by pain can make breathing problems even worse.
Encourage deep breathing exercises and pursed-lip breathing techniques as two non-pharmacologic interventions that the nurse could use to help the client breathe easier, offering a fan or cool mist humidifier to ease irritated airways, Using relaxation methods to lessen stress and anxiety, such as guided imagery or meditation,
The normal ranges for each of the ABG components in an adult are:
pH: 7.35-7.45
PaCO2: 35-45 mmHg
HCO3: 22-28 mEq/L
PaO2: 80-100 mmHg
SaO2: 95-100%
The nurse would anticipate seeing elevated PaCO2 and decreased PaO2 in a client with COPD. Due to the elevated levels of carbon dioxide, the pH may also be lower than usual.
each set of ABG results' analysis
1: PaO2 is low, HCO3 is slightly elevated, pH is slightly low, and PaCO2 is elevated. As a result, there is respiratory acidosis.
2: PaCO2, pH, HCO3, and PaO2 are all below normal, and PaCO2 is significantly below normal. The metabolic acidosis that this shows.
3: PaCO2, pH, and HCO3 are all within normal ranges. PaO2 is slightly depleted. As a result, there is respiratory alkalosis.
Impaired gas exchange related to decreased lung function and respiratory distress and activity intolerance related to shortness of breath and decreased oxygenation are two nursing diagnoses for this client.
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14. The RNA molecule is made up of how many
strands?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
e) 12
Answer:
a
Explanation:
RNA has 1 strand so the answer is a
Answer:
(a)
Explanation:
RNA has only one strand
Which person in your group would you expect to have the biggest measurement when determining the nearpoint of accommodation?
18 year old
25 year old
35 year old
45 year old
The person in the group who would be expected to have the biggest measurement when determining the nearpoint of accommodation is the: 18-year-old
The nearpoint of accommodation refers to the closest point at which an individual can focus on an object, and it typically decreases with age due to changes in the eye's lens.
Younger individuals typically have a better nearpoint of accommodation compared to older individuals because their eye lens is more flexible, which allows them to adjust and focus more easily. As people age, their eye lens becomes less flexible, and their nearpoint of accommodation increases, meaning they have to move objects further away to be able to focus on them. Therefore, the 18-year-old in the group would be expected to have the smallest nearpoint of accommodation compared to the older individuals.
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how can handle common injuries at childcare?
Answer:
Effective injury prevention methods include the use of childproof caps on medications and household poisons, age-appropriate restraints in motor vehicles (i.e., car seats, booster seats, seat belts), bicycle helmets, and a four-sided fence with a locked gate around residential swimming pools
Explanation:
Injuries are the leading cause of death and disability for young children. Young children are at higher risk of injuries overall, and certain injuries are more probable at different ages. Toddlers are most susceptible to poisoning, pre-schoolers to drowning, and school-aged children to pedestrian accidents. Children are more likely to be injured when they are not under appropriate adult supervision.
The vast majority of childhood injuries are preventable. Child care providers need to take specific steps to prevent injury in the child care setting. The following are some basic recommendations for preventing injury.
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Autoantibodies are present in both gillian-barre syndrome and multiple sclerosis. Plasmapheresis is helpful in treating the former but not the latter. Explain this difference.
Answer:As I know
Explanation:Each condition affects a different part of your nervous system: MS damages the central nervous system. That's the brain and spinal cord. GBS damages the peripheral nervous system.
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Studies suggest that N2O contribute to the release of endorphins, which inhibit neurotransmission across the neuro junctions, producing _____. 1. Euphoria 2. Analgesia 3. Anesthesia 4. Sedation
Answer:
2. Analgesia
Explanation:
They produce a chemical that blocks the neurotransmitter called. Substance p which is responsible for transmitting impulses that elicit pain reflexes to the spinal cord
Where do you think, the line is drawn to determine whether a person has consciousness?
Answer:
Resonance in the case of the human brain generally means shared electric field oscillation rates, such as gamma band synchrony (40-120 Hertz). Our consciousness-ometer would then look at the degree of shared resonance and resulting information flows as the measure of consciousness.
Explanation:
5. Why does culture play a role in variations of gender?
In the early stages of her pregnancy, dana often experienced morning sickness?
a. Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day.
b. Avoid foods that increase nausea/vomiting symptoms.
c. Eat something like dry cereal or crackers before rising from bed each morning.
d. Ginger and even vitamin B6 have been shown to help alleviate nausea in some individuals.
All the options provided in the question are useful to expel morning sickness in the early stages of pregnancy.
A) Consume small frequent meals throughout the day.
Consuming small portion of meals through out the day is very helpful in compelling the symptoms of morning sickness. As progesterone lowers the rate at which your body processes food, having small portions allows your body to process the food more easily.
B) Avoid foods that increase nausea/vomiting symptoms.
Many foods during pregnancy can cause unwanted response from the body especially in the form of nausea. During pregnancy one should avoid spicy and greasy food, along with avoiding any other foods or smells that might increase the nauseous symptoms.
C) Eating something dry like cereal or crackers before rising from bed are helpful as they are light but still start the digestive process that helps in quelling the nausea
D) Ginger and vitamin B6
Taking vitamin supplements and food rich in B6 everyday has shown to help in quelling nausea.
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