a graduate practical nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube. a seasoned nurse is assisting in providing guidance for completing tracheostomy care. when changing the ties, the client moves and dislodges the tube. which of the following does the seasoned nurse do first? a) call for the registered nurse to reinsert the tube. b) place a dilator in the stoma to maintain the opening. c) cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile gauze to prevent infection. d) call for an ambulance and transfer the client to the emergency department.
Answers
The seasoned nurse should a) call for the registered nurse to reinsert the tube. Hence option a) is the correct answer.
This is the most urgent and important action as the client's airway is compromised and needs to be secured immediately. The dilator and sterile gauze can be used to maintain the stoma and prevent infection after the tube is reinserted. Option D, calling for an ambulance and transferring the client to the emergency department, may be necessary if the tube cannot be reinserted, but it is not the first action to take.
When a client with a tracheostomy tube accidentally dislodges the tube, the seasoned nurse should first:
a) Call for the registered nurse to reinsert the tube.
This action should be taken first because it is crucial to quickly reestablish the client's airway to ensure proper breathing. The registered nurse has the expertise and skills necessary to safely reinsert the tube in a timely manner.
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Related Questions
An action or condition that increases your chances of developing a disease or health condition is known as a.
Answers
Answer:
a risk factor is a variable that increases your risk for a disease.
ex. being a smoker is a risk factor for lung cancer.
Knowledge and attitude of women towards pre menopausal syndrome
Answers
Answer:
Irritability and feelings of sadness are the most common emotional symptoms of menopause. Often, they can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as learning ways to relax and reduce stress. Here are some tips that may make it easier for you to handle your fluctuating emotions: Exercise and eat healthy.
If you want to become a medical doctor, you can attend medical school in place of
attaining a four-year college degree.
A) False
B) True
Answers
Answer:
True and that's on Grey's Anatomy :)
Explanation:
The Answer is :
True
: )
How many essential minerals does your body need
Answers
the prefix ab- means what?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
It means away
When caring for a client who uses a protective device (restraint), the nurse aide Should
Answers
Answer:
(A) assess the client once every hour.
(B) assure the protective device is tight.
(C) check the client’s body alignment.
(D) release the protective device once a shift.
Explanation:
correct me if I'm wrong have a great day.
The nurse aide should prioritize the client's safety, ensure proper use of the protective device, and monitor the client closely.
When caring for a client who requires a protective device or restraint, the nurse aide's main responsibility is to prioritize the client's safety. This involves ensuring that the protective device is applied correctly and according to the healthcare provider's instructions. The nurse aide should have proper training and knowledge on how to properly use and secure the device to prevent harm to the client.
Additionally, the nurse aide should monitor the client closely and regularly assess their physical and emotional well-being. This includes checking for signs of discomfort, skin integrity, and circulation. The nurse aide should promptly respond to any concerns or changes in the client's condition.
It is crucial for the nurse aide to communicate effectively with the healthcare team, reporting any issues or observations related to the use of the protective device. Collaboration and teamwork are essential in providing appropriate care and ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
Overall, the nurse aide's main focus should be on providing compassionate care, maintaining the client's dignity, and promoting their comfort while adhering to the necessary precautions and guidelines related to the use of protective devices.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Answers
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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help. please. 10 points
Answers
Answer:
This Is a pic showing the answers. Im pretty sure they are right.
Explanation:
An optimal time to assess resting heart rate would be after you have _____. a. read in bed quietly for about half an hour b. performed flexibility exercises for about half an hour c. watched an action movie for about half an hour d. exercised vigorously for about half an hour e. walked at a moderate pace for no longer than an hour
Answers
Answer:
read in bed quietly.
Explanation:
A nurse is admitting a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? a. Initiate a low residue diet b. pantoprazole 80 milligrams Ivy bolus twice daily c. pancrelipase pays 500 units per kilogram PO three times a day with meals d. Ambulate twice daily
Answers
Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily. The nurse needs to be ready for a doctor to prescribe a PPI to reduce gastric acid production, which will then reduce pancreatic secretions.
Which drugs are given to a person with acute pancreatitis?There are no specific drugs used to treat acute pancreatitis at the moment. In addition to intravenous (IV) fluid hydration, painkillers, antibiotics (in cases of severe pancreatitis), and the management of metabolic problems, therapy generally focuses on providing support (eg, hyperglycemia and hypocalcemia).
What are the options for treating acute pancreatitis?Both acute and chronic pancreatitis are managed by physicians using ERCP. X-rays and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are combined in ERCP to treat bile or pancreatic duct obstruction or constriction.
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(blank) can help decrease the impact of disasters.
Answers
Answer: Awareness, education, preparedness, and prediction and warning systems
Clinton took away freedom of choice by making it mandatory to go to a doctor in the HMO network if you wanted your insurance to cover cost.
Answers
It is a political assertion that can be debated and is not necessarily a universally accepted truth.
What is a political assertion?A political assertion is a statement or declaration that reflects a particular political belief or viewpoint. It may express an opinion or perspective on a political issue, event, or policy. Political assertions can be based on facts, but they can also be influenced by personal beliefs, opinions, or ideologies.
Political assertions are often subjective and can be open to interpretation, and they can be the source of disagreement or debate among people with different political beliefs or affiliations. They can be made by individuals, political leaders, or organizations and can take many different forms, from simple statements to more complex arguments.
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5- Match the right to the left:
a) Amlodipine.
blocking Ang 2 formation
Decreases retention of water and salt by
b) Enalapril ACEH
Dilates Blood vessels to decrease blood
pressure
Decreases retention of water and salt by An
c) Labetalol.
receptors.
d) Lorsartan.
Slows down Heart rate
e) Furosemide.
Increases diuretic but retains the potassiu
Increases Diuresis
f) Spironolactone.
Answers
Here are the correctly matched items from right to the left:
a) Amlodipine - Dilates blood vessels to decrease blood pressure
b) Enalapril - Decreases retention of water and salt by blocking Ang 2 formation
c) Labetalol - Slows down heart rate
d) Losartan - Decreases retention of water and salt by blocking Ang 2 receptors
e) Furosemide - Increases diuresis but retains potassium
f) Spironolactone - Decreases retention of water and salt by blocking aldosterone receptors.
For further explanation:
Amlodipine - The following conditions can be treated with amlodipine alone or in conjunction with other antihypertensive and antianginal medications. Enalapril - Enalapril is a prodrug that belongs to the ACE inhibitor class of medications that affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which controls blood pressure and fluid and electrolyte balance.Labetalol - Labetalol is produced as an injectable or tablets to treat hypertension. It is a racemic combination of two diastereoisomers, with 25% of the mixture being dilevalol, the R,R' stereoisomer.7,8Losartan - Decreases retention of water and salt by blocking Ang 2 receptorsFurosemide - To treat high blood pressure, furosemide is used either on its own or in conjunction with other drugs. Furosemide is used to treat edema, which is excess fluid retained in bodily tissues as a result of a variety of illnesses, such as liver, kidney, and heart disease.Spironolactone - Aldosterone receptor antagonist spirolactone is prescribed to treat hirsutism (off-label), hypertension, hyperaldosteronism, edema brought on by a variety of diseases, and hypokalemia.Here is another question with an answer similar to this about Amlodipine: https://brainly.com/question/30765410
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Which type of report might an assistant fire chief create using the fire department’s record management system?
operations reports for each station
routines in each firehouse
requests for vacation
blue prints for construction
Answers
Answer: routines in each firehouse
Explanation:
because your going to need to understand the routines, in order to get started.
Answer:
Which type of report could a battalion chief run using the fire department's Record Management System?
answer: all emergency calls in a month
Explanation:
^^^^^ the person above is incorrect!
List and briefly discuss the five research suggestions for increasing happiness in one's life.
Answers
You have got a job at a pharmaceutical company and your task is to measure how a new drug regulates lipolysis in fat cells. Since you are new to the job, ask your colleague for advice. The colleague says that you should first isolate fat cells and then treat the fat cells with the medicine. Then you can measure free fatty acids in the medium the fat cells live in. The concentration of free fatty acids becomes a measure of lipolysis. Is your colleague right or wrong? Motivate your answer.
Answers
The colleague is right. Isolating fat cells and treating them with the new drug is a valid approach to measure the regulation of lipolysis.
When studying lipolysis, isolating fat cells provides a controlled environment to observe the specific effects of the drug on the cells. By treating the fat cells with the medicine, the researcher can simulate the intended interaction and measure the resulting changes.
Lipolysis refers to the breakdown of triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol, and measuring the concentration of free fatty acids in the medium provides an indication of the extent of lipolysis occurring in the fat cells.
By following this approach, the researcher can evaluate how the new drug affects lipolysis in fat cells and assess its potential therapeutic effects. It is important to note that additional experiments and controls may be necessary to validate the findings and consider other factors that could influence lipolysis.
However, the suggested method of isolating fat cells, treating them with the drug, and measuring free fatty acid concentration provides a starting point for investigating the drug's impact on lipolysis.
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for preventive health assessment (pha) reasons, how often are members' records reviewed to ensure all requirements and recommendations have been addressed?
Answers
Answer:
The frequency of reviewing members' records for preventive health assessment (PHA) purposes can vary depending on the specific policies and procedures of the organization or entity conducting the PHA. However, in general, PHAs are typically conducted on an annual basis for most individuals, particularly for active duty military personnel.
The U.S. Department of Defense (DoD), for example, requires that active duty military members undergo an annual PHA, which includes a review of their health records to ensure that all requirements and recommendations for preventive care, such as vaccinations, screenings, and other health assessments, have been addressed. The purpose of the PHA is to assess the overall health and readiness of military personnel and to identify any potential health risks or issues that may impact their ability to carry out their duties.
It's important to note that PHA requirements and frequency can vary depending on the specific guidelines and policies of the organization or entity conducting the assessments. Therefore, it's recommended to consult the relevant guidelines or policies of the specific organization or entity in question to determine the exact frequency of PHA reviews for members' records.
Explanation:
For preventive health assessment (PHA) reasons, members' records are typically reviewed annually to ensure that all requirements and recommendations have been addressed.
This helps to ensure that the member's health is being monitored and that any potential health issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner. It is important to regularly review these records to ensure that nothing is missed and that the member's overall health and well-being are being properly maintained.
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9.Choose the correct statement about mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. It is spread by sexual transmission
B. The reservoirs are humans and animals
C. Disseminated disease mostly occurs in immunocompetent patients
D. Primary infection is pulmonary
Answers
Answer:
D Primary infection is pulmonary
Explanation:
which of the following is not a part of person centered care
Answers
Answer:
please state the correct question and post the pic of the questions
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018) has established categories for weight that are determined by body mass index. Children and adolescents at or above the 97th percentile are classified as _____.
Answers
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018) has established categories for weight that are determined by body mass index. Children and adolescents at or above the 97th percentile are classified as obese.
Body mass index (BMI) is a tool used to measure an individual's weight status.
BMI compares an individual's weight to their height and provides a numerical value that is used to determine whether an individual has a healthy weight, is overweight, or is obese.
It is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has established the following BMI-for-age categories for children and adolescents:
Underweight:BMI-for-age less than the 5th percentile
Normal weight:BMI-for-age between the 5th and less than the 85th percentiles
Overweight:BMI-for-age between the 85th and less than the 95th percentiles
Obese:BMI-for-age equal to or greater than the 95th percentile
Therefore, Children and adolescents at or above the 97th percentile are classified as obese.
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A nursing instructor is leading a group discussion on congenital hydrocephalus. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which factor that determines the noncommunicating type?
Answers
Answer:
Hydrocephalus is produced when there is an imbalance between the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced by the choroid plexus and its absorption into the bloodstream. It is a congenital disease that can be divided into two major classes: communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus is caused by blockage of the CSF circulation pathway after exit from the ventricles, while the non-communicating type is caused by the obstruction of one or more ventricles in the brain. Thus, the disruption of the ventricular zone (i.e., both the obstruction within a ventricle and the connection between ventricles) is known to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, while the factors associated with communicating hydrocephalus include insufficient CSF reabsorption, excessive CSF production and defective flow of CSF.
if the two balls are moving at the same speed , and the basketball has a kinetic energy of 10.0 j , what is the kinetic energy of the basketball
Answers
Answer:
10.0 j ...?
Explanation:
Give 3 reasons for the clinical trial of drugs.
Answers
2) measures effectiveness in the drugs and results
3) test the safety of the drugs
clearly the moral standards of our youth have decayed. two doctors at central hospital appeared recently on a talk show, and both were convinced that the youth of today have no morals at all.
Answers
The logical fallacy committed in the statement is the appeal to unqualified authority. The doctors who appeared on the talk show are not necessarily experts in the field of ethics or morality, the correct option is A.
The logical fallacy opinions may be biased, and they may not have conducted any relevant research or studies to support their claims. Therefore, their opinions should not be considered a qualified authority on the matter.
Instead, a more reliable source of information on the moral standards of youth would be data from credible studies or surveys conducted by experts in the field. It is important to base opinions and arguments on valid and reliable sources rather than personal biases or unqualified authorities, the correct option is A.
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The complete question is:
What logical fallacy is being committed in the following statement?
"Clearly the moral standards of our youth have decayed. Two doctors at Central Hospital appeared recently on a talk show, and both were convinced that the youth of today have no morals at all."
A. Appeal to unqualified authority.
B. Ad hominem
C. Appeal to emotion
D. False dilemma
Lola is thinking about having a child and asks you for advice. Use research presented in your text to describe positive and negative aspects of having children and positive and negative aspects of being childless.
Answers
Answer:
If they believe their ready then have the child
Explanation:
Wanting to raise a child can come with challenges, but delivering the infant as healthy as possible you need to know medical records, health risk, the right amount of medication along what kind. You need to exam the woman to see if she's in a healthy weight, has a healthy diet, and overall if her body is ready to carry a child. The negative outcome to having or caring for the child is the amount of body change. Weight gain, mood swings, stretch marks, pain, etc will start to become common to happen. All of this will be worth it to see ur child come to this world. It's a challenge many mothers went through to see their child in this world become someone amazing.
What are the Pros and Cons of completely legalizing marijuana
(for a essay)
Answers
Pro
Marijuana legalization boosts the economy.
The marijuana industry (adult-use and medical) in the United States could exceed $24 billion in revenue by 2025. [7] For every $1.00 spent in the marijuana industry, between $2.13 and $2.40 in economic activity is generated. [1][2] Tourism, banking, food, real estate, construction, and transportation are a few of the industries that benefit from legal marijuana. [3]
The legal marijuana industry generated $7.2 billion in economic activity in 2016, and added millions of dollars in federal taxes paid by cannabis businesses. [20] One study on adult-use marijuana in Nevada projected $7.5 billion in economic activity over the first seven years of legalization, including $1.7 billion in labor income. [4] A study by the University of California Agricultural Issues Center estimated that the legal marijuana market in California could generate $5 billion annually.
In Colorado, marijuana brings in three times more tax revenue than alcohol. The state raised $78 million in the first fiscal year after starting retail sales, and $129 million the second fiscal year. Washington collected a total of $220 million in tax revenues in its second fiscal year of sales.
Con
Legalized marijuana creates steep costs for society and taxpayers that far outweigh its tax revenues.
Marijuana use harms more than just the person using the drug. [129] Societal costs of marijuana use include paying for increased emergency room visits, medical care, and addiction treatment for the uninsured; more victims of drugged driving accidents; increased crime; and a negative impact on health from secondhand smoke. [78][102]
Annual societal costs from alcohol ($223.5 billion) and tobacco ($193 billion) far exceed the $24 billion in tax revenues they raise. [128][128][131][172] Money raised from legal marijuana taxes generally accounts for less than 1% of a state’s tax revenue. [132][134]
Legalizing marijuana would put one more harmful substance in our society that costs more than the revenue it generates. [130] According to the Pew Research Center, “the most frequently mentioned reason why people oppose legalization is that marijuana generally hurts society.”
Sone studies show that more alcohol consumption occurs in girls age then boys of the same age group
Answers
The statement' Some studies show that more alcohol consumption occurs in girls age than boys of the same age group' is False.
How could gender affect alcohol consumption?It has been shown that males have more problems with alcohol consumption than females and therefore it has been a target study to discover how alcohol might diferentially affect the brain.
In conclusion, the statement' Some studies show that more alcohol consumption occurs in girls age than boys of the same age group' is False.
Complete question:
Some studies show that more alcohol consumption occurs in girls age than boys of the same age group. True or False.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
Answers
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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what tertiary function tries down to make decision based upon personal situation, and focuses on relationship and giving praise to other?
1. judging
2. Goal-setting
3. Dreaming
4. Feeling
Answers
Goal-setting refers to the tertiary function which tries down to make decision based upon personal situation.
What is Goal setting?This involves development of an action plan which helps to motivate and guide a person or group toward a goal.
This is done by making decision based upon personal situation, and focuses on relationship and giving praise to other.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Answers
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest