The nurse should include experiments with drugs and inhalants in the teaching
Who is public health nurse?
Public health nursing is "the practice of promoting and safeguarding the health of populations using information from nursing, social, and public health sciences," according to the American Public Health Association. Every day, nurses have a direct impact on the health and happiness of their patients.Involvement in the community and knowledge of the entire population are combined by public health nurses with personal, clinical knowledge of the health and illness experiences of people and families within the population. They support community members in speaking up about their concerns and ambitions by translating and articulating the health and illness experiences of varied, frequently vulnerable individuals and families in the population to health planners and policy makers. Public health nurses are aware about a variety of intervention options, including those that are appropriate for the whole population, the family, and the individual. Through focused treatments, programs, and advocacy, public health nurses communicate to individuals and demographic groups the knowledge from the social and health sciences.Education regarding risk of poisoning:
Get ready.Incorporate carbon monoxide detectors into each bedroom in your house.Keep items and medications in their original packaging.Use packaging that is child-resistant. Reinstall the caps firmly.Store your household goods away from your food and medications.Use medications sensibly.Therefore, the nurse can include experiments related to drugs and inhalants in teaching risk of poisoning.
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Cual ha sido el impacto de la ciencia y las tecnologias para curar el cancer de mama y otras emfermedades del sistema endocrino
Answer:
el desarrollo de terapias hormonales ha permitido enlentecer y/o detener el crecimiento de tumores, incluyendo tumores en tejidos mamarios
Explanation:
La terapia hormonal, también conocida como terapia endócrina, es un tratamiento utilizado enlentecer y/o detener el crecimiento de células y tejidos defectuosos. La terapia hormonal se divide en dos (2) clases de acuerdo a su modo de acción en el cuerpo: 1-terapias con el objetivo de bloquear la capacidad del cuerpo para producir hormonas y 2-terapias que bloquean la función normal de las hormonas en el cuerpo. La terapia hormonal permite controlar el desarrollo de células cancerosas que se dividen formando tumores y aquellas que se desprenden del tumor para viajar a través del cuerpo formando nuevos tumores, es decir, produciendo metástasis. En cáncer de mama, la terapia hormonal posee múltiples beneficios: 1-reduce el riesgo de formación de tumores en otro tejidos mamarios, 2-previene la reaparición de células tumorales, 3-detiene el crecimiento de células tumorales y 4-reduce el tamaño de tumores previamente a la realización de una cirugía, haciendo más fácil la tarea de extirparlo. Por otra parte, diferentes metodologías desarrolladas con el objetivo de matar células tumorales mamarias también incluyen la quimioterapia, la cual usa drogas para reducir el número de células cancerosas, y la radioterapia, que consiste en el uso de altas dosis de radiación para destruir las células tumorales.
People are aware that they’re dreaming and feel as though they’re conscious during:
Explanation:
People are aware that they’re dreaming and feel as though they’re conscious during :Lucid dreaming
LUCID DREAMING is the answer
because of their inability to ambulate, children with cerebral palsy should be evaluated for which nutrients?
Children with cerebral palsy may have difficulty ambulating due to muscle weakness, spasms, or stiffness, which can affect their ability to maintain a healthy weight and meet their nutritional needs. Therefore, it is important to evaluate these children for several key nutrients, including:
1. Protein: Protein is essential for muscle growth and repair. Children with cerebral palsy may require additional protein to support their muscle development and prevent muscle wasting.
2. Calcium and vitamin D: These nutrients are important for bone health and development, particularly in children who may have limited weight-bearing activities. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be necessary to ensure adequate bone mineralization.
3. Iron: Iron is necessary for the formation of red blood cells and oxygen transport throughout the body. Children with cerebral palsy may be at increased risk of iron deficiency anemia due to gastrointestinal issues or restricted food intake.
4. Vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 is important for nerve function and the production of red blood cells. Children with cerebral palsy who are unable to consume a balanced diet may be at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency.
5. Fiber: Adequate fiber intake is important for promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation, which can be a common issue in children with cerebral palsy.
6. Calories: Children with cerebral palsy may require additional calories to support their growth and development, particularly if they have difficulty feeding or experience involuntary movements that increase their energy expenditure.
A registered dietitian can work with the child's healthcare team to develop an individualized nutrition plan that meets their specific needs and preferences.
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What ribonucleoprotein recognises and targets specific proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotes?
Almost all professions and organizations have standards of behavior for their employees called...
a.Medical Ethics
b.applied ethics
c. code of ethics
d.bioethics
In a medical setting,what's done to whole numbers to minimize the chance of errors?
A clinical trial evaluated the effectiveness of 3 different medication A, B and C against allergies caused by pollen on 24 patients.
All 3 medicines were effective for only 1 person.
medicines A and B but not C were effective for 1 person.
6 people in total got relief from medicine A.
15 people in total got relief from medicine B.
and 12 people in total got relieve from medicine C
a) Draw a Venn diagram that illustrates this problem.
b) how many people got relief from at least one of the medicines?
c) how many people got relief from medicine B and C but not medicine A?
The number of people who got relief from medicine B and C but not medicine A would be 15 + 12 - 1 = 26.
a) The Venn diagram illustrating the problem would have three overlapping circles representing medicines A, B, and C. The circle for medicine A would contain 6 people, the circle for medicine B would contain 15 people, and the circle for medicine C would contain 12 people. There would be one intersection between medicines A and B representing the person who got relief from both A and B but not C, and another intersection between medicines A, B, and C representing the person who got relief from all three medicines. The remaining areas outside the circles would represent the individuals who did not get relief from any of the medicines.
b) The number of people who got relief from at least one of the medicines can be determined by adding up the counts of individuals who got relief from medicine A, medicine B, and medicine C, while avoiding double-counting those who got relief from multiple medicines. In this case, 6 people got relief from medicine A, 15 people got relief from medicine B, and 12 people got relief from medicine C. However, since there is overlap, the person who got relief from all three medicines should only be counted once. Therefore, the number of people who got relief from at least one of the medicines would be 6 + 15 + 12 - 1 = 32.
c) To determine the number of people who got relief from medicine B and C but not medicine A, we need to find the count of individuals in the intersection between medicines B and C while excluding the overlap with medicine A. From the information given, 15 people got relief from medicine B and 12 people got relief from medicine C. However, the person who got relief from all three medicines (included in the overlap of A, B, and C) should be excluded. Therefore, the number of people who got relief from medicine B and C but not medicine A would be 15 + 12 - 1 = 26.
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medicare supplement insurance that provides a preventative medical care benefit will often cover
Medicare supplement insurance that provides a preventative medical care benefit will often cover services such as screenings, immunizations, and wellness visits.
Medicare supplement insurance, also known as Medigap, is designed to help cover some of the costs that are not covered by Original Medicare (Part A and Part B). While Medicare itself covers many preventive services, Medicare supplement insurance plans can provide additional coverage for preventive medical care. Here are some examples of services that may be covered:
Screenings: Medicare supplement insurance plans may cover screenings for various conditions such as cancer, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and osteoporosis. These screenings can include mammograms, Pap tests, colonoscopies, and bone density tests.
Immunizations: Coverage for immunizations, including flu shots, pneumonia vaccines, and other recommended vaccines, may be included in Medicare supplement insurance plans.
Wellness visits: Medicare supplement insurance may cover annual wellness visits or preventive care visits, where a healthcare professional assesses your overall health, reviews your medical history, and provides personalized health advice.
It's important to note that coverage can vary among different Medicare supplement insurance plans. It is advisable to carefully review the details of the specific plan to understand the preventive care benefits it provides.
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which drugs appear to produce therapeutic effects by blocking receptor sites for dopamine?
Drugs that appear to produce therapeutic effects by blocking receptor sites for dopamine are called dopamine receptor antagonists.
These drugs are a class of medications that block the binding of dopamine to its receptors in the brain and can help alleviate symptoms of certain psychiatric conditions that involve high levels of dopamine, such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and psychosis.
Dopamine receptor antagonists (DRAs) are a class of drugs that block dopamine receptor sites in the brain. They are used to treat a variety of psychiatric conditions that involve high levels of dopamine, such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and psychosis. By blocking dopamine from binding to its receptors, DRAs can help alleviate the symptoms of these conditions. Some common DRAs include haloperidol, chlorpromazine, risperidone, and olanzapine.
Dopamine receptor antagonists work by blocking the binding of dopamine to its receptors in the brain. When dopamine binds to its receptors, it triggers a series of biochemical reactions that lead to the release of other neurotransmitters and the activation of certain neural circuits. By blocking dopamine from binding to its receptors, DRAs reduce the activity of these circuits and decrease the release of other neurotransmitters.
This can help alleviate the symptoms of psychiatric conditions that involve high levels of dopamine.
The side effects of dopamine receptor antagonists can vary depending on the specific drug and the individual taking it. Some common side effects include sedation, dizziness, dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and weight gain. More serious side effects can include tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder characterized by involuntary muscle movements, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a life-threatening condition characterized by high fever, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability.
The use of DRAs should be carefully monitored by a healthcare professional to minimize the risk of side effects.
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susan oster, 45, is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 38.5 degrees c, heart rate 102 beats/min, respiration 20/mm with septicemia and sirs. her wbc is 12,500. documentation states acute respiratory and acute hepatic failure are due to septicemia. which icd-10-cm codes are assigned
Question Completion with Options:
A) R65.20, A41.9, 196.00, K72.00
B) A41.9, R65.20, 396.00, K72.00
C) K72.00.A41.9,196.00, R65.20
D) R65.20, K72.00, A41.9,196.00
Answer:
Susan Oster, 45
The correct ICD-10-CM codes are:
A) R65.20, A41.9, 196.00, K72.00
Explanation:
The ICD-10 means the International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision as published by the World Health Organization. The correct medical codes show the underlying condition (symptoms), followed by the etiology (specific causes of disease), the findings, disease types, and degrees of severity for Susan Oster, 45. The vital signs in the patent's readings include the temperature reading, heartbeat rate, respiration rate, and the first diagnosis before laboratory tests are carried out to confirm or disprove the first diagnosis.
whats something that affects your social relationships in a positive way and why? Please help
Answer:
Something would be your clothes
Explanation:
everybody says that "first impression is the most important" and that also means your clothes beceause, you can have Einstein's brain and it doesn't matter at first glance it matters only how you look (clothes, hair, etc.)
What is torso truma..
Torso trauma may be defined as a type of injury that involves specific regions of the body such as the chest and the abdomen.
What is the actual cause of Torso's trauma?The actual cause of torse trauma includes recreational accidents, motor vehicle collisions, assaults, falling from a certain height, etc.
Apart from the chest and the abdomen, torso trauma also includes the injury of major organs like the small bowel, liver, kidneys, diaphragm, pancreas, spleen, colorectum, etc.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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Ingesting too much antacid would cause which of the following acid-base disturbances?
A. respiratory alkalosis
B. metabolic alkalosis
C. metabolic acidosis
D. respiratory acidosis
Antacids are medications that neutralize stomach acid. If a person takes too much antacid, it can lead to an excess of base in the body, which can cause respiratory acidosis. Option D is Correct.
Respiratory acidosis occurs when the blood pH decreases due to an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. When a person ingests too much antacid, the excess base in the body can cause a shift in the body's acid-base balance. This shift is known as respiratory alkalosis.
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition in which the blood pH increases due to an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. This increase in carbon dioxide occurs when the body exhales more carbon dioxide than it takes in, which can happen when the respiratory muscles are unable to work properly due to the excess base in the body. Option D is Correct.
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The nurse writes up notes on a patient seen in the emergency room. In layman’s terms, translate the notes to explain what is happening.
48 y.o. male c/o SOB. Issues increase upon activity, decrease at rest. h/o COPD pulse oximetry 81%
Answer: 48 Year old male complains of Shortness of breath, issues increase upon acticity, decrease at rest. history of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease(Coughing disease) pulse oximetry 81% Which 81% is normal.
Explanation: your welcome, brainliest?
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of which of the following?
a. carbohydrates only
b. lipids only
c. proteins only
d. carbohydrates and lipids only
e. carbohydrates and proteins only
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of lipids only (b).
Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (lipids). When we consume a meal that contains fats, bile is released into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to aid in the digestion process.
Bile contains bile salts, which help emulsify fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat molecules, allowing pancreatic lipase (an enzyme) to efficiently break them down into fatty acids and glycerol.
If there is a blockage in the flow of bile into the duodenum, such as in cases of gallstones or a blockage in the bile duct, the digestion of lipids becomes compromised. Without sufficient bile, the emulsification of fats is impaired, making it difficult for pancreatic lipase to access and break down the fat molecules effectively. As a result, the digestion and absorption of lipids are hindered, leading to potential malabsorption and related digestive issues. The digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, on the other hand, is not directly dependent on the presence of bile and would not be significantly affected by the blockage.
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A 76-year-old client of an assisted living facility has just been diagnosed with chronic glaucoma. which information will the nurse share with the client about treatment?
You'll probably be given eye drops that you need to apply on a daily basis.
How is chronic glaucoma managed?You can treat glaucoma by reducing your eye pressure (intraocular pressure). Your options may include prescription eyedrops, oral drugs, laser therapy, surgery, or a combination of any of these, depending on your circumstances.
Can you cure chronic glaucoma?Glaucoma has no known treatment, although early intervention can frequently stop the deterioration and safeguard your vision.
What distinguishes acute from chronic glaucoma?People who with chronic glaucoma might not even realize they are losing their eyesight for years, and they might never feel pain. Acute types of the condition can cause severe pain, nausea, and abnormalities in eyesight. Treatments for glaucoma reduce ocular pressure. Usually, eye drops are the first step in treatment plans.
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who was convicted of illegaly administering a controlled substance without a license to practice medicine
Answer:
Muhammad Arif
Explanation:
After a five-day day jury trial, Muhammad Arif, 61, of Katy, Texas, was found guilty of one count of conspiracy to unlawfully distribute and dispense controlled substances and three counts of unlawfully distributing and dispensing controlled substances.
what class of medications can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and provide immediate relief
Alpha-adrenergic blockers are a class of medications that can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and provide immediate relief.
Alpha-blockers work by relaxing the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, which can improve urine flow and reduce symptoms such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Examples of alpha-blockers commonly used for BPH include tamsulosin, alfuzosin, and doxazosin. These medications can provide rapid relief of symptoms, often within a few days of starting treatment. However, they may also cause side effects such as dizziness, headache, and fatigue, so they should be used with caution in patients who are prone to these symptoms.
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why are chronic alcoholics at risk for zinc deficiency?
Does having the Cov!d vaccine make it safe to be out in the public without the risk of getting the virus?
Answer:
short answer.....no
Explanation:
does not prevent contracting the virus....actually reduces severity of symptoms
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Health Care reform is predicted to result in more doctors being attracted to
Answer:
according to Wikipedia
Health Care reform is predicted to result in more doctors being attracted to The goals of health care reform focus on cost containment, improved access, and increased quality of services for all citizens.
Answer:
Health Care reform is predicted to result in more doctors being attracted to The goals of health care reform focus on cost containment, improved access, and increased quality of services for all citizens.
Explanation:
what are two ways in which white blood cells fight pathogens that have enterd the body
Answer:
If a pathogen enters your body, white blood cells of your immune system quickly recognise its foreign antigens. This stimulates specific lymphocytes to grow, multiply and finally produce antibodies that will stick to the antigens on the invading pathogens and destroy them.
Explanation:
ECOTOXICOLOGY
(e) State important aspects of allometry in dose-response relationship [4 marks]
Allometry in the dose-response relationship is a crucial aspect that considers the scaling, species variations, extrapolation, and safety assessment of the response to a chemical or drug.
It recognizes the differences in body size or weight among organisms and examines how these variations influence the dose-response relationship.
By understanding the scaling relationship, allometry enables the appropriate dose adjustments for different species or individuals. It takes into account species-specific differences in metabolism and physiology, allowing for the extrapolation of data between species or from animal models to humans. Moreover, allometry plays a vital role in safety assessment by establishing safe exposure levels that minimize adverse effects while maximizing therapeutic benefits. It helps ensure accurate and reliable predictions of the response to chemicals or drugs, promoting effective and safe use in various populations.
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Based upon what you know what would happen to bone tissue if one of the three types of bone cells were missing but the other types of bone cells were present in the tissue?
Answer:
My conviction is what would happen to the bone tissue if one pf the three bone cells were missing but the other types of bone cells were present in the tissue is that it would be beneficial to have all four bone cells in the human tissue based on anatomy and celllar organisms such as humans but having only one bone cell in the human tissue would and create a longer time standard to heal if the human goes trough internal bleeding and even external.
Having all four cells would make the tissue stronger and it is imperitive to have many more red and white blood cells to heal the tissue.The bone tissue would still be part of the human body as obvious but in a weaker and more vunerable stage.
Sasha sets a goal to read 5 minutes longer than each previous day for 30 days. On the first day, Sasha reads for 20 minutes. The expression represents the total number of minutes Sasha reads during the 30 days. How many total minutes does she read
To calculate the total number of minutes Sasha reads during the 30 days, we need to find the sum of the arithmetic sequence where each term represents the number of minutes Sasha reads each day. The common difference between consecutive terms is 5 (Sasha reads 5 minutes longer each day), and the first term is 20 minutes.
The formula to find the sum of an arithmetic sequence is:
Sum = (n/2) * (2a + (n-1)d)
where:
n = number of terms
a = first term
d = common difference
In this case, we have:
n = 30 (since Sasha reads for 30 days)
a = 20 (the first day's reading time)
d = 5 (the difference in reading time each day)
Plugging in the values into the formula:
Sum = (30/2) * (2*20 + (30-1)*5)
Simplifying the expression:
Sum = 15 * (40 + 29*5)
Sum = 15 * (40 + 145)
Sum = 15 * 185
Sum = 2775
Therefore, Sasha reads a total of 2775 minutes during the 30 days.
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3.
Which structures in the
eye does the drug act on to mydriasis?
Answer:
The excitation of the radial fibres of the iris which increases the pupillary aperture is referred to as a mydriasis.
The structures in the eye that the drug acts on to cause mydriasis are the radial muscles of the iris and the dilator pupillae muscle. Mydriasis refers to the dilation of the pupil and is the opposite of miosis, which is the constriction of the pupil.
Drugs that cause mydriasis are known as mydriatics. The most common mydriatic drugs include atropine, phenylephrine, and tropicamide. These drugs are used in ophthalmology to perform eye examinations or to treat certain eye conditions.The drug atropine acts by blocking the action of the parasympathetic nervous system on the iris.
The parasympathetic nervous system normally causes the circular muscle of the iris to contract, resulting in miosis. By blocking this action, atropine allows the radial muscles to contract, causing the pupil to dilate.Phenylephrine works by stimulating the dilator pupillae muscle, which causes the pupil to dilate. Tropicamide works by blocking the action of the parasympathetic nervous system on the iris, similar to atropine.
However, tropicamide has a shorter duration of action than atropine and is therefore often used for diagnostic purposes. Mydriasis can also be caused by other factors such as injury, inflammation, or certain medical conditions. However, the use of mydriatic drugs is the most common method for inducing mydriasis in ophthalmology.
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The nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory difficulty in the newborn. finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
When you breathe, your nostrils may flare up slightly. It can be an indication that you're experiencing trouble breathing. Children and infants are most frequently affected by it. It could be a sign of respiratory discomfort in some situations.
Why do my Nasal flaring up?
There are several reasons that can lead to nasal flaring, from short-term diseases to chronic ailments and accidents. It could also be a result of strenuous exercise. Nasal flare-ups are not normal when breathing comfortably.
infection from bacteria and viruses
If you have a serious infection, like the flu, you might see your nostrils flare. People with severe respiratory illnesses like pneumonia and bronchiolitis are the ones who experience it the most frequently.
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A bag contains 2 striped cubes, 3 dotted cubes, 4 white cubes and 3 red cubes. What is the probability of drawing a white cube, not replacing it, and then drawing a dotted cube?
Answer:
I think that Dependent should be the answer to this...
Blood Flow Worksheet, mind helping me out?
Answer:
I'll put (r) if red, (b) if blue after each word
1. heart (b), _________, vena cava (b)
2. right ventricle (b)
3. pulmonary (b), lungs (b)
4. atrium (r), pulmonary veins (r)
5. ventricle (r)
6. ventricle (r), aorta (r), __________
Explanation:
I *think* both of the blanks would be heart, but I'm not positive. And I would guess the first would be blue, and second would be red.
Sorry I didn't get them all.