Answer:
1) 2304 kPa
2) B. 200 N/m
Explanation:
The internal pressure of the of the tank can be found from the following relations;
Resisting wall force F = p×(1/4·π·D²)
σ×A = p×(1/4·π·D²)
Where:
σ = Allowable stress of the tank
A = Area of the wall of the tank = π·D·t
t = Thickness of the tank = 15 mm. = 0.015 m
D = Diameter of the tank = 25 m
p = Maximum permissible internal pressure pressure
∴ σ×π·D·t = p×(1/4·π·D²)
p = 4×σ×t/D = 4 × 240 ×0.015/2.5 = 5.76 MPa
With a desired safety factor of 2.5, the permissible internal pressure = 5.76/2.5 = 2.304 MPa
2) The formula for average shear flow is given as follows;
\(q = \dfrac{T}{2 \times A_m}\)
Where:
q = Average shear flow
T = Torque = 8 N·m
\(A_m\) = Average area enclosed within tube
t = Thickness of tube = 6.35 mm = 0.00635 m
Side length of the square cross sectioned tube, s = 203 mm = 0.203 m
Average area enclosed within tube, \(A_m\) = (s - t)² = (0.203 - 0.00635)² = 0.039 m²
\(\therefore q = \dfrac{8}{2 \times 0.039} = 206.9 \, N/m\)
Hence the average shear flow is most nearly 200 N/m.
Following are the solution to the given question:
Calculating the allowable stress:
\(\to \sigma_{allow} = \frac{\sigma_y}{FS} \\\\\)
\(= \frac{240}{2.5} \\\\= 96\\\\\)
Calculating the Thickness:
\(\to t =15\ mm = \frac{15\ }{1000}= 0.015\ m\\\\\)
The stress in a spherical tank is defined as
\(\to \sigma = \frac{pD}{4t}\\\\\to 96 = \frac{p(25)}{4(0.015)}\\\\\to p = 0.2304\;\;MPa\\\\\to p = 230.4\;\;kPa\\\\\to p \approx 230\;\;kPa\\\\\)
\(\bold{\to A= 203^2= 41209\ mm^2} \\\\\)
Calculating the shear flow:
\(\to q=\frac{T}{2A}\)
\(=\frac{8}{2 \times 41209 \times 10^{-6}}\\\\=\frac{8}{0.082418}\\\\=97.066\\\\\)
\(\to q=97 \approx 100 \ \frac{N}{m}\\\)
Therefore, the final answer is "".
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2.) Technician A says that milky colored ATF could indicate a leaking transmission cooler in the radiator.
Technician B says that milky colored ATF could indicate the presence of leak detection dye.
Who is right?
OA. A only
OB. B only
OC. Both A and B
OD. Neither A nor B
Fred says that he ran the Huffman coding algorithm for the four characters, A, C, G, and T, and it gave him the code words, 0, 10, 111, 110, respectively. Give examples of four frequencies for these characters that could have resulted in these code words or argue why these code words could not possibly have been output by the Huffman coding algorithm.
The Huffman coding algorithm works by building a binary tree in which the more frequent characters are closer to the root and have shorter code words.
Therefore, we can come up with frequencies that would result in the given code words by building a binary tree with the desired structure.
For the code words 0, 10, 111, 110, we can construct the following binary tree:
css
Copy code
.
/ \
A .
/ \
C .
/ \
T G
The frequencies that would result in this tree and the given code words are:
A: 1
C: 2
G: 2
T: 3
We can verify that these frequencies result in the given code words:
A: 0
C: 10
G: 111
T: 110
Therefore, these frequencies could have resulted in the given code words.
Alternatively, we can argue that these code words could not possibly have been output by the Huffman coding algorithm. If we sort the given code words by length, we get: 0, 10, 110, 111. This ordering violates the property of prefix-free codes, where no code word can be a prefix of another code word. In this case, the code word 10 is a prefix of 110, which means that these code words could not have been produced by the Huffman coding algorithm.
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Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels?
a. 1
b. 12
c. 24
d. 64
The correct answer is c. 24.Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels.
A T1 circuit has a total capacity of 1.544 Mbps, which is divided into 24 channels of 64 kbps each. This enables a single T1 circuit to carry up to 24 separate voice or data channels simultaneously through the use of multiplexing techniques.To elaborate further, T1 is a digital transmission technology used primarily in North America and Japan. It uses time-division multiplexing (TDM) to combine multiple voice or data signals into a single transmission path.In T1, each channel operates at a data rate of 64 kbps, which is sufficient for a single telephone conversation. The 24 channels are combined using TDM, where each channel is assigned a time slot in a repeating cycle. Each channel's data is sent in its assigned time slot, and the process repeats every 125 microseconds. This allows for the efficient use of the T1 circuit's total bandwidth.
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what step is not in the process of application building in soa style?
The soa-style application building process does not include the service implementation stage.
What form of communication is utilized to access RESTful services?GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE, which stand for creation, retrieval, updating, and deletion of resources, respectively, are some of the common HTTP methods that are implemented by RESTful Web services, which are typically based on the HTTP protocol.
Which of the following items does not qualify as a server application?Complete Response. Vital Points Ping is a computer network administration tool used to check whether a host on an Internet Protocol can be reached (IP). There is no server in ping that offers a service.
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technician a says that the purpose of the pre delicery service is to inspect and identify any problems prior to the vehicles delicery to the customer and to verify that the vehicle is functionally and visually ready for delivery to the customer and to verify that the vehicle is functionally and visually ready for delivery to the customer.\
technician b says that the pre delicery service is performed based upon the standards published in a pre delivery service bulletin specific to each vehicle model and model year.
Who is right?
Both Technician A and Technician B are partially correct in their statements regarding the purpose and standards of pre-delivery service.
Professional A is right in expressing that the motivation behind the pre-conveyance administration is to examine and distinguish any issues before the vehicle's conveyance to the client.
This is crucial to ensure that the vehicle is in proper working condition and meets the expected standards.
The pre-delivery service involves checking various components, systems, and functionalities of the vehicle, including both functional and visual aspects. Identifying and addressing any issues before delivery helps prevent any potential problems or dissatisfaction for the customer.
Professional B is likewise right in expressing that the pre-conveyance administration is performed in view of the guidelines distributed in a pre-conveyance administration release well defined for every vehicle endlessly model year.
Automobile manufacturers often provide specific guidelines and standards that technicians must follow during the pre-delivery service. These guidelines outline the necessary inspections, tests, and procedures that should be conducted to ensure compliance with the manufacturer's quality standards.
In conclusion, both technicians are right in their respective statements, as the purpose of pre-delivery service is to inspect and prepare the vehicle for delivery while following the specific standards and guidelines set by the manufacturer.
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The * key is used for ____.
Give a brief explanation of the difference between a NAAQS
exceedance and a NAAQS violation.
A NAAQS exceedance refers to temporary levels exceeding the established standard, while a NAAQS violation indicates a persistent or recurring non-compliance with the standard.
NAAQS (National Ambient Air Quality Standard), set by regulatory agencies to protect public health and the environment, establish maximum allowable levels for pollutants in the ambient air. The terms "exceedance" and "violation" are used to describe different scenarios of non-compliance:
1. NAAQS Exceedance: A NAAQS exceedance refers to a temporary event where pollutant concentrations surpass the standard. It may occur due to short-term spikes in pollution levels caused by localized sources, unusual weather conditions, or specific events. Exceedances are typically evaluated and addressed on a case-by-case basis and may not immediately trigger regulatory actions.
2. NAAQS Violation: A NAAQS violation signifies a sustained or recurring non-compliance with the established standard. It occurs when pollutant levels consistently exceed the NAAQS over a specified timeframe, such as an averaging period (e.g., 24 hours or annual). Violations trigger regulatory consequences and the implementation of corrective measures, such as emission controls, enforcement actions, or mandated pollution reduction plans.
Differentiating between exceedances and violations is crucial in regulatory decision-making and prioritizing resources for air quality management. While exceedances may warrant investigation and localized actions, violations indicate the need for more significant and sustained efforts to achieve and maintain compliance with the NAAQS.
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engineering controls are devices such as self sheathing needles and sharps containers to block or eliminate the sharp risk.
Engineering controls are devices that block or eliminate sharps hazards, such as self-coating needles and sharps containers.
Standard precautions include hand washing and use of appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when contact with a patient's bodily fluids is anticipated. Engineering controls are devices that isolate or eliminate the risk of blood-borne pathogens from the workplace (OSHA, 2019a). Management of environmental hazards is part of policies to reduce the potential for the spread of blood-borne pathogens and other potential infectious agents.
Engineering controls protect workers by eliminating hazardous conditions or creating barriers between workers and hazards. Examples include local exhaust ventilation to trap and remove airborne emissions and mechanical guards to protect workers.
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say there is a b -tree primary index on a relation r. since an insert or a delete into r changes the index as well, we must take locks on the index during updates. briefly explain what kind of locks you would take on the index pages when doing an insert or a delete into the relation. remember a page split or merge may involve the ancestors and the siblings of a node.
Any subnode of a given node is called a child node, and the given node, in turn, is the child's parent.
What is ancestor node?Beginning with the parent node and continuing through to the root node, the ancestor axis displays all of the context node's ancestors. Exactly like Following-Siblings, this idea is a notion. Functionality-wise, the only change is what came before. In this case, as opposed to Following-Sibling, you receive information on all the nodes that are siblings or on the same level as your present node but are located earlier in the tree. We must use xpath's following-sibling idea in order to navigate to the subsequent sibling. Through the current sibling of the same parent, we can then move on to the following sibling.To learn more about ancestor node refer to:
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You insert a dielectric into an air-filled capacitor. How does this affect the energy stored in the capacitor?.
The effect that the energy stored in the capacitor is that option b: Energy stored in the capacitor will decrease.
How does electric field affects the energy stored in a capacitor that contains a dielectric?If a dielectric is said to be inserted into any kind of an isolated and charged capacitor, the stored energy is known to often decreases to about 33% of its real value.
The capacitance of a give group of charged parallel plates is known to often increased by the inputting of a dielectric material. The capacitance is known to be inversely proportional to the electric field that tends to exist between the plates, and thus, the presence of the any form of dielectric tend to lower the effective electric field.
Therefore, The effect that the energy stored in the capacitor is that option b: Energy stored in the capacitor will decrease.
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You insert a dielectric into an air-filled capacitor. How does this affect the energy stored in the capacitor?
a. Energy stored in the capacitor will remain same.
b. Energy stored in the capacitor will decrease.
c. Energy stored in the capacitor will increase.
d. Energy stored in the capacitor will increase first and then it will decrease.
what is time dependent
Answer:
Adjective. time-dependent (not comparable) (mathematics, physics) Determined by the value of a variable representing time.
Explanation:
Plz mark brainliest thanks
Answer: Adjective. time-dependent (not comparable) (mathematics, physics) Determined by the value of a variable representing time
if needed [10 marks] For the oscilloscope traces in Fig.: Determine the phase relationship between the waveforms, and indicate which one leads or lags.in degrees;
Based on the oscilloscope traces in Figure, the phase relationship between the waveforms needs to be determined, indicating whether one waveform leads or lags the other in degrees.
If one waveform appears to reach its peak or zero-crossing before the other waveform, it is said to be leading. Conversely, if one waveform reaches its peak or zero-crossing after the other waveform, it is said to be lagging. By carefully examining the time shift between the waveforms, we can determine the phase relationship and the amount of phase shift in degrees. To calculate the phase shift, we can use the formula:
Phase shift (in degrees) = (Time shift / Time period) x 360°
Where the time shift is the time difference between corresponding points on the waveforms, and the time period is the period of one complete cycle of the waveform. By applying this formula, we can determine whether one waveform leads or lags the other and the amount of phase shift in degrees.
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Show how various Superpave tests used to characterize the asphalt binder are
related to pavement performance.
The tests is used to characterize asphalt binder abecause they help determine the binder's resistance to deformation, cracking and aging which are critical factors in pavement durability.
How are the Superpave tests used?The tests include rotational viscosity test, dynamic shear rheometer test, bending beam rheometer test and the aging oven test in which rotational viscosity test measures the binder's resistance to flow, dynamic shear rheometer test measures the binder's resistance to deformation and cracking.
The bending beam rheometer test determines the binder's stiffness at low temperatures and aging oven test simulates the effect of aging on the binder which is necessary in predicting the pavement's long-term durability.
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What song do you play most often?
What’s your favorite quote from a movie?
What’s your “go to” joke?
Answer:
I play dynamite BTS.
”Don’t give up!”
Knock knock who’s there jimmy, jimmy who jimmy back my formula!
Explanation: Thx for asking
.
Answer:
1: I listen to a lot of different types of songs but one I play a lot is "Chasing" by NF
2: I don't really know but... Probably, " There's a snake in my b0ot!" lol
3: My "go to" joke is 100% always ... " If I look like my mom, would I technically be my dads t y p e?"
It gets them every time. ;)
Which of the two following four options have been shown by research to be generally not as effective a method for studying which two methods are more likely to produce illusions of complete in learning
The answer choices that have been shown by research to be generally not as effective a method for studying and the methods that are more likely to produce illusions of competence in learning are:
rereadinghigmappingWhat is Studying?This refers to the act or process of reading material in order to gain new knowledge about a topic and to retain the information in long-term memory.
Hence, we can see that from the complete text, there are different options given and the results of research that showed that they are not very effective for studying and they are:
rereadinghigmapping
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What is the meaning of beauty and completeness? In relation to these what are the attributes a Muslim should adopt?
ᴄᴏᴍᴘʟᴇᴛᴇɴᴇꜱꜱ ᴍᴇᴀɴꜱ ᴛʜᴇ ꜱᴛᴀᴛᴇ ᴏꜰ ʙᴇɪɴɢ ᴄᴏᴍᴘʟᴇᴛᴇ ᴀɴᴅ ᴇɴᴛɪʀᴇ; ʜᴀᴠɪɴɢ ᴇᴠᴇʀʏᴛʜɪɴɢ ᴛʜᴀᴛ ɪꜱ ɴᴇᴇᴅᴇᴅ.
ʙᴇᴀᴜᴛʏ ᴍᴇᴀɴꜱ combination of qualities, such as shape, colour, or form, that pleases the aesthetic senses, especially the sight.
Briefly explain thermal expansion using the potential energy–versus–interatomic spacing curve.
As the temperature of the material increases, the potential energy of the molecules increases. Thermal expansion occurs due to changes in temperature, and interatomic distances increase as potential energy increases.
What are the uses of Thermal Expansion?Thermal expansion is used in a variety of applications such as rail buckling, engine coolant, mercury thermometers, joint expansion, and others.
It is to be noted that an application of the concept of liquid expansion in everyday life concerns liquid thermometers. As the heat rises, the mercury or alcohol in the thermometer tube moves in only one direction. As the heat decreases, the liquid moves back smoothly.
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what is the division of demand
: Explain why testing can only detect the presence of errors, not their absence?
Answer:
The goal of the software is to observe the software behavior to meet its requirement expectation. In software engineering, validating software might be harder since client's expectation may be vague or unclear.
Explanation:
If substance A has molecules moving at a high rate and substance B has molecules moving at a low rate, which substance has the lower temperature?
Answer:
substance B
Explanation:
Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except ________. logic gates data storage frequency division counting
Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except logic gates.
What are Flip flops?Flip flops are known to be tools that are used for counting. They come in different ranges.
Note that Flip flops are one that can be seen on counters, storage registers, and others and as such, Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except logic gates.
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Using leftover paint colors is acceptable in a paint shop and will help cut down on waste.
True or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
they put it through a process to be able to reuse it
whose investigations first shed doubts about the caloric theory of heat
The investigations of Count Rumford and Sir Humphry Davy were among the first to shed doubts about the caloric theory of heat.
They conducted experiments that showed the relationship between mechanical work and heat, which contradicted the caloric theory that heat was a fluid substance. Later, the work of James Prescott Joule and others provided further evidence that heat was a form of energy, rather than a substance.
The caloric theory of heat was a scientific model that was popular in the 18th and early 19th centuries. It proposed that heat was not a form of energy, but rather a type of fluid called "caloric" that flowed from hotter objects to colder objects. The theory was developed to explain the nature of heat and how it was transferred between objects.
According to the caloric theory of heat, when an object was heated, it absorbed caloric, which caused its temperature to increase. When an object was cooled, it released caloric, which caused its temperature to decrease. The theory also proposed that heat was not a conserved quantity, meaning that it could be destroyed or created, in contrast to the modern understanding of thermodynamics, which holds that energy is always conserved.
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at what distance r from the center of a tube of radius r0 does the average velocity occur in a laminar flow?
In a laminar flow, the average velocity of 0.707r0 occurs at a distance r from the center of a tube with radius r0.
What is the ratio of a fluid's maximum velocity to its average velocity in a pipe?The maximum velocity for a fully developed laminar viscous flow through a circular pipe is double the average velocity. The maximum velocity for fully developed laminar flow through parallel plates is equal to (3/2) times the average velocity.
What are the two average velocity formulas?Because displacement is always less than or equal to the distance traveled, average velocity is always either less than or equal to average speed.
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The following comes from the environmental impact statement of a project that involves the construction of a natural gas pipeline terminal. Construction of the Terminal will affect about 404 acres (164 ha) of open land and water. All affected land areas will be permanently converted to industrial land. Construction of the pipeline will impact about 412 acres (167 ha) of agricultural, industrial, and open land. However, the impacts will not be significant as most of the area disturbed by the pipeline will be within agricultural areas and will return to preconstruction conditions after construction is finished. Why does the statement predict that half the land will return to preconstruction conditions while the other half of the land will not? Any land that is not directly under the pipeline will naturally return to its previous state. Half the land is under water, meaning that the environmental impact will be lessened. Half the land has already been developed; half has not. Half the land is already being used for heavy industry so it will not be affected.
The statement predicts that half the land will return to pre-construction conditions, while the other half of the land will not because half the land is underwater, meaning that the environmental impact will be lessened. The correct option is b.
What are pre-constructed conditions?Pre-construction is when hazards connected with the project are carefully evaluated and planned to be minimized.
This includes assessing the construction site, determining the need for permits and inspections, and addressing any other unique circumstances that may arise before or during construction.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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Explain how the mobile phone can be classified as disruptive innovation.
Answer: The evolution of cell phones to software-centric smartphones has changed the economics of production and competition. The leveraging of economies of scale, scope, and externality effects has powered the evolution of smartphone as disruptive innovation. It has disrupted a number of products and their producers because of the growing underlying natural tendency of convergence and monopoly. It has also been diffusing as growing progressive waves.
Explanation:
aluminum metal undergoes the same basic corrosion process that iron does yet it does not decompose as rapidly. why?
Aluminum metal corrodes in the same way that iron does, but it does not decompose as quickly because aluminum oxide does not flake off just like rust and serves as a protective layer.
What is Rusting?
Rust is the chemical reaction that occurs when iron reacts with oxygen and water. However, the term "rust" is poorly defined in chemistry because many chemicals can be formed when iron is left exposed. However, the red, flaky appearance caused by certain chemicals is commonly referred to as rust.
In normal environmental conditions, corroding iron or steel produces a wide range of compounds. Depending on what molecules they pick up from the environment while rusting, some of these chemicals will be black, blue, yellow, gray, or brown. Acid rain, for example, can combine with iron to form molecules of pyrite, the yellow mineral known as "fool's gold". These minerals are not at all what we think of as rust. What we usually mean is an iron oxide (III) with a red or red-brown appearance.
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equipment that can provide hot water for bathing is called___
Answer:
A heater
Explanation:
An equipment that can provide hot water for bathing is called water heater.
Given data:
Equipment that can provide hot water for bathing is commonly referred to as a "water heater." Water heaters are appliances or systems designed to heat water for various purposes, including bathing, washing dishes, and other domestic uses. They are available in different types, such as tankless water heaters, storage tank water heaters, and heat pump water heaters.
The water is heated from the inside using electricity, often by running a high electric current through a big element within the tank to heat the water directly. Energy is transferred up from the heater through the particles into the water above it.
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The overload relay contact is connected in series with the ____________ of the starter.
The overload relay contact is connected in series with the coil of the starter.
In an electrical starter, the overload relay is a protective device that senses excessive current flow in the circuit. It is connected in series with the coil of the starter, which is responsible for energizing the main contacts of the starter. By being in series with the coil, the overload relay can monitor the current passing through the coil. If the current exceeds a certain set point, indicating an overload condition, the overload relay will trip and open the circuit, de-energizing the coil and preventing the starter from operating. This helps to protect the motor and other components from damage due to excessive current.
Starters are gadgets that control the utilization of electrical capacity to hardware. As the name suggests, starters "begin" engines. They are also able to stop, turn around, accelerate, and shield them. Starters are constructed from two basic components: overloads and contactors
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how do the following quantities change when the simple ideal rankine cycle is modified with regeneration? assume the mass flow rate through the boiler is the same.
The alterations in the following quantities are as follows:
The output of the turbine decreases in both open and closed feed water regenerative cycles some of the steam will be extracted so turbine output decreases.Heat supplied decreases in both open and closed feed water regenerative cycles some of the steam will be extracted to heat incoming feed water and hence heat supplied decreases.Heat rejected decreases In both open and closed feed water regenerative cycles some of the steam.What do you mean by the Regenerative cycle?The regenerative cycle may be characterized as any stationary gas turbine which significantly recovers heat from the gas turbine exhaust gases to preheat the inlet combustion air to the gas turbine.
In an ideal regenerative Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at the boiler pressure and expands isentropically to an intermediate pressure. Some steam is extracted at this state and routed to the feedwater heater, while the remaining steam continues to expand isentropically to the condenser pressure.
Therefore, the alterations in the following quantities are well described above.
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