The protection of client privacy and confidentiality is of utmost importance in personality testing.
Clients are protected from abuses of personality tests, including privacy and confidentiality violations, through a variety of measures. Here are some examples: Informed consent: Clients must provide informed consent before taking a personality test. This means that they must be provided with information about the purpose of the test, how the results will be used, and any potential risks or benefits associated with taking the test. They must also be informed of their rights to privacy and confidentiality. Confidentiality: Personality test results are confidential and protected by various laws and ethical guidelines, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and the American Psychological Association's (APA) Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct. Test results are typically only shared with authorized individuals, such as the client's healthcare provider or legal representative. Privacy: Personality tests are typically administered in a private setting to protect the client's privacy. This may include providing a private room for testing or using secure online testing platforms that protect client information. Test security: Personality tests are typically administered under controlled conditions to prevent unauthorized access to the test materials or results. This may include limiting access to test materials to authorized individuals, such as healthcare providers or psychologists. Test selection: Personality tests should be selected based on their validity, reliability, and appropriateness for the client's needs. Test selection should be based on sound clinical judgment and take into account the client's age, cultural background, and other relevant factors.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
What are the top 3 unintentional injuries?
Answer:
unintentional injuries are motor vehicle accidents, poisonings and falls.
Explanation:
You might be surprised to learn that the leading cause of death in the United States for people under the age of 44 is unintentional injury. The three most common causes of unintentional injuries are motor vehicle accidents, poisonings and falls.
Type A adverse drug reactions
a. may be due to familial predisposition to side effects
b. may be due to genetic differences in drug-metabolizing enzymes
c. may be predicted with good knowledge of pharmacology
d. may be especially common in atopic individuals
Type A adverse drug reactions may be predicted with good knowledge of pharmacology. option (c) is the correct answer.
Adverse drug reactions (ADRs) are any undesired or unexpected harmful reactions that occur after the administration of a medication or drug. These reactions can range from mild side effects to life-threatening complications.Type A adverse drug reactions are the most common and predictable type of adverse drug reaction. They are also referred to as augmented or dose-related reactions. They are caused by the pharmacological effects of a medication or drug and are usually dose-dependent and can be predicted with good knowledge of pharmacology. Thus, the correct option is (c) may be predicted with good knowledge of pharmacology. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Chloe was raised in a family where they did not discuss mental health. When she experiences PTSD following a severe car accident, her parents imply she should just stop thinking about it. For this reason, Chloe did not seek treatment for nearly five years when she finally reached a breaking point and a friend took her to the doctor. Chloe’s experience is an example of...
a. a felt stigma.
b. stigma and illness.
c. an enacted stigma.
d. stigma expectations.
A 42-year-old white male was referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician because of a two-month history of gross rectal bleeding. The new patient was seen on Wednesday, and the doctor performed a comprehensive history and exam. Medical decision making was of moderate complexity. The patient was scheduled for a complete diagnostic colonoscopy four days later. The patient was given detailed instructions for the bowel prep that was to be started at home on Friday at 1:00 p. M.
On Friday, the patient was registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (15 minutes) was administered by the physician performing the procedure, and the flexible colonoscopy was started. The examination had to be halted at the splenic flexure because of inadequate bowel preparation. The patient was rescheduled for Monday and given additional instructions for bowel prep to be performed starting at 3:00 p. M. On Sunday.
On Monday, the patient was again registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (30 minutes) was again administered by the physician performing the procedure, and a successful total colonoscopy was performed. Diverticulosis was noted in the ascending colon and two polyps were excised from the descending colon using the snare technique. The pathology report indicated the polyps were benign.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code:
CPT Code:
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes:
,
CPT Codes:
,
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes:
,
,
CPT Codes:
,
,
The diagnosis codes and CPT codes for a patient who presented with rectal bleeding and underwent a colonoscopy were provided for three different encounters. These codes included K62.5, Z86.010, K57.30, and K63.52.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code: K62.5 - Hemorrhage of Rectum and Anus
CPT Code: 45378 - Diagnostic Colonoscopy
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes: K62.5 - Hemorrhage of Rectum and Anus, Z86.010 - Personal history of colonic polyps
CPT Codes: 45378 - Diagnostic Colonoscopy, 99152 - Moderate Conscious Sedation
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes: K57.30 - Diverticular Disease of Large Intestine Without Perforation or Abscess, K63.5 - Polyp of Colon, Z86.010 - Personal history of colonic polyps
CPT Codes: 45380 - Colonoscopy with Biopsy, single or multiple, 45385 - Colonoscopy with removal of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) by snare technique, 99152 - Moderate Conscious Sedation
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The correct question is:
A 42-year-old white male was referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician because of a two-month history of gross rectal bleeding. The new patient was seen on Wednesday, and the doctor performed a comprehensive history and exam. Medical decision-making was of moderate complexity. The patient was scheduled for a complete diagnostic colonoscopy four days later. The patient was given detailed instructions for the bowel prep that was to be started at home on Friday at 1:00 p.m.
On Friday, the patient was registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (15 minutes) was administered by the physician performing the procedure, and the flexible colonoscopy was started. The examination had to be halted at the splenic flexure because of inadequate bowel preparation. The patient was rescheduled for Monday and given additional instructions for bowel prep to be performed starting at 3:00 p.m. on Sunday.
On Monday, the patient was again registered for outpatient surgery at the hospital, moderate conscious sedation (30 minutes) was again administered by the physician performing the procedure, and a successful total colonoscopy was performed. Diverticulosis was noted in the ascending colon and two polyps were excised from the descending colon using the snare technique. The pathology report indicated the polyps were benign.
Day of Encounter: Wednesday
Diagnosis Code: ___________
CPT Code: ______________
Day of Encounter: Friday
Diagnosis Codes: ___________, ___________
CPT Codes: __________, _______________
Day of Encounter: Monday
Diagnosis Codes: ______________, _____________, _____________
CPT Codes: ________________
17. You enter the water to rescue a victim with a suspected spinal injury. You determine that
the victim is not breathing. What should you do next?
Answer:
Explanation:
You would remove the victim from the water, and use the Extrication Using a Backboard at the Pool Edge technique.
Answer:
resuscitate her/him
Explanation:
To get the water out
Sofiya is learning about the human brain. Her teacher asks to her identify a part of the brain's central core. Which of the following should she choose?
Answer:
This question lacks options, options are:
A) cerebral cortex
B) cerebellum
C) hypothalamus
D) spinal cord
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Brain's central cored is considered our primitive brain and defined as a hierarchical cognitive organization, it is responsible for carrying out the most basic functions and those unconscious and involuntary behaviors, it is formed by the reticular system, the cerebellum, the basal ganglia and the brain stem. The cerebellum is a motor organ located in the posterior fossa, closely related to the brain stem which is responsible for controlling balance, constantly monitoring the feedback of the muscles to coordinate their location, movement and tension.
A nurse is collecting data from a client following a lumbar puncture. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
o Hydrophobia
Petechiae to the lower extremities
Blood in the urine
Headache
For a nurse collecting data from a client following a lumbar puncture, adverse effects the nurse should monitor is Petechiae to the lower extremities. Option B is correct
What is a lumbar puncture?The operation of extracting fluid from the lower back spine using a hollow needle, it is commonly done for diagnostic purposes.
In conclusion, When a lumbar puncture operation takes place some patients experience adverse effects like Petechiae to the lower extremities.
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how do you bones grow naturally
Bones grow naturally by the intake of food that is rich in calcium.
How does bones grow?We know that bones are the part of the body that provides support for the rest of the body. The bones are often strong and contains calcium which helps the growth and the strengthening of the bones.
Now bones can grow naturally when a person eats food that is filled with calcium. In that way, the cells of the bone can be able to derive their nutrition and are strengthened. This is why the experts do recommend that a person should be able to eat food that is full of calcium especially in the years that the individual is developing rapidly.
Thus children and those in the teenage years are told to eat foods that are rich in calcium and this would see to the natural growth and development of the bones.
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the client has taken 3/4 of a bottle of aspirin that contained 100 tablets. How many tablets has the client taken?
Answer:
75
Explanation:
because 3/4 is equal to% 75 and 75% of 100 is 75
The client has taken 3/4 of a bottle of aspirin that contained 100 tablets because 3/4 is equal to% 75 and 75% of 100 is 75.
How the number of tablets will be calculated?The number of tablets is, n = 160.
The quantity of aspirin in each tablet is,
The objective is to find the total grams of aspiring in the bottle.
Since, each tablet contains 0.062 g of aspiring, then 160 tablet in the bottle will contains,
Hence, the total grams of aspiring in the bottle is 9.92 g.
The cost of one antacid is 2.325 cents per tablet.
As per the question based on the student analysis we know that,
Total antacid tablets in a bottle = 120
Purchase Price of a bottle = $ 2.79
Cost of 1 antacid tablet
As we know $1 = 100 cent
The cost of 1 antacid tablet = × 100 cents = 2.325 cents/tablet .
Thus we came to know that it costs 2.325 cents/tablet.
Other things remains constant, the law of demand states that there is a inverse relationship between the the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded for a commodity. If there is an increase in the price of tablets then as a result the quantity demanded for tablets decreases and if there is a fall in the prices of tablets then as a result the quantity demanded for tablets increases.
Therefore, The client has taken 3/4 of a bottle of aspirin that contained 100 tablets because 3/4 is equal to% 75 and 75% of 100 is 75.
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Mycobacteria secrete a waxy coating that makes this disease difficult to treat using antibiotics:.
Mycobacteria secretes a waxy coating which makes the disease, Tuberculosis difficult to treat using antibiotics. The cellular envelope of Mycobacteria is thick, waxy and hydrophobic in nature thus, making it antibiotic resistant. The presence of mycolic acid (MA) in abundance within the mycobacterial cell envelope mainly provides the hydrophobic barrier to antibiotic entry.
What is Mycobacteria?Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a non-motile, aerobic, waxy, lipid-rich bacillus with a high concentration of mycolic acid in its outer wall (a type of fatty acid).
What is the cell wall structure of Mycobacteria?Mycobacteria is partially gram negative and partially gram positive in nature. The cellular envelope of mycobacteria is composed of dual membrane structure. The structure comprises of a mycobacterial outer membrane (MOM) with inner layer of mycolic acids along with outer leaflet composed of free lipids. The mycolic acid layer is covalently bonded to the polysaccharide cell wall, but the free lipids are not bound and can be removed from the envelope, a characteristic not present in Gram-negative bacteria.
What is mycolic acid?Mycolic acids are abundantly present in the mycobacterial cell envelope contributing to 30% of the dry weight. Mycolic acids not only provide the hydrophobic barrier but also contributes to the pathogenicity of Mycobacteria. MA is composed of long-chain α-alkyl-β-hydroxy fatty acids.
What is the role of mycolic acid in antibiotic resistance?The MA profile is specific to specific species of Mycobacteria. The MA chains are densely arranged into parallel arrays that are parallel to the cell envelope's surface, and these arrays may be stabilized by hydrogen bonds formed between the -OH groups. The cis-double bonds and cyclopropane rings, which cause kinks in the long chains, influence how the MAs fold into energetically advantageous conformations within these arrays. Stabilizing hydrophilic contacts are also formed through the oxygen functions. As a result, the keto-MAs might adopt a conformation known as the "W-form," in which four chains are arranged parallel to one another. Although the 'W' shape can also be formed by the methoxy-MAs and '-MAs, they are more malleable at higher temperatures, especially the '-MAs, which take on more open forms. The MA monolayer gains the necessary rigidity from this tight packing, creating a hydrophobic permeability barrier that may be controlled by the MAs adopting different conformations depending on their structure and the surrounding temperature.
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a client has a marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate (gfr); lab values with high blood urea nitrogen (bun), potassium, and creatinine levels; urine output less than 10 ml/hr; 3 pitting edema in the lower extremities; and bp 170/95. which phase of acute tubular necrosis (atn) does the nurse identify the client is in based on assessment data?
The client has a marked decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR), lab values with high blood urea nitrogen (BUN), potassium, and creatinine levels, urine output less than 10 ml/hr, 3 pitting edema in the lower extremities, and BP 170/95.
Based on this assessment data, the nurse identifies that the client is in the oliguric phase of Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN).Acute Tubular Necrosis is a kidney disorder caused by lack of oxygen, drugs or toxins, or kidney disease. It is characterized by damage to the tubular cells in the kidneys. There are three phases of ATN: Oliguric phase, Diuretic phase, and Recovery phase.In the oliguric phase, the client has a marked decrease in urine output, usually less than 400 ml per day or 10 ml per hour.
Lab values may reveal an increase in BUN, creatinine, and potassium levels due to a reduction in GFR. The client may also develop fluid overload, as evidenced by peripheral edema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. In this phase, dialysis may be required to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. Therefore, based on the given assessment data, the nurse identifies that the client is in the oliguric phase of Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN).
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You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.
Answer:
what is the question that is being asked here?
Explanation:
This patient is a 73-year-old male nonsmoker with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He presented to this ED with shortness of breath and was found to have had an acute myocardial infarction of the anterior wall of his heart showing an ST elevation that had previously been left untreated. He developed several complications, including renal failure from a combination of cardiogenic shock and toxicity from the dye used for emergency catheterization of his heart.
The nurse has completed a preoperative teaching session with a client who will receive morphine via a PCA pump after surgery. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
a."I will remind my family member to push the PCA pump button for me if I doze off during the day."
b."I will let my nurse know if the pain medication is not effective enough to help me move after surgery."
c."I can push the button whenever I feel pain."
d."I will use the PCA pump until oral pain medication controls my pain."
when reviewing research terminology, the nurse defines major terms. when a variable can be manipulated to cause an effect on the dependent variable, what is it called? (select all that apply.)
An independent variable is a factor that the researcher deliberately changes or controls in an experiment to observe its impact on the dependent variable.
For example, let's consider a research study examining the effect of exercise on heart rate. In this study, the independent variable would be the level of exercise, such as low, moderate, or high intensity. The researcher would manipulate the independent variable by assigning participants to different exercise groups.
The dependent variable in this example would be the participants' heart rate, which is the outcome or response being measured. The researcher would measure the participants' heart rate before and after the exercise to determine if there is any change based on the level of exercise.
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What did Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission?
a.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles
b.
Holloman AFB became a site for the Tactical Fighter Wing
c.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of the atomic bomb
d.
Both a and b are correct.
e.
Both a and c are correct.
Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission because a. Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles.
Holloman AFB, located near Alamogordo, New Mexico, has a rich history in the field of missile development and testing. It played a crucial role in the United States' efforts to advance its missile technology during the mid-20th century. In particular, Holloman AFB was closely associated with the development and testing of guided missiles.
The base became home to the Holloman Development Test Center (formerly known as the Holloman Test Facility), which was established to conduct research, development, and testing of various guided missile systems. This included both air-to-air and surface-to-air missiles. Holloman AFB provided a suitable environment for missile testing due to its expansive and relatively unpopulated surroundings, allowing for safe and controlled test flights.
In summary, Holloman AFB's mission centered around the development and testing of guided missiles, making it an integral part of the United States' efforts to advance missile technology. Therefore, Option a is correct.
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The nurse made an error in documenting
nurse use for correcting a documentation
a patient's care. Which method would the
error in a paper chart?
Given that the nurse has made this error the way that she would be able to take care of the documentation error would be to draw a single line across the error she made along with her initials then she would follow through with the correct details.
What is meant by documentation error?This is the term that is used to refer to the error that the nurse would make while trying to write on what should be the information as it concerns a patient and the medication that they are to adhere to.
When she makes such an error she has to take the measure above before she would go ahead to do the right thing on paper. The nurse has to change this so that she would be able to communicate what is to be the correct information to the right people. If she keeps it as it was without corrections, she would be sending the wrong messages and this may bring confusions as well as misunderstanding.
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Which of the following statements is true of cones?
The statement that is true about cones is:
These cells are responsible for color vision.What are cones?The photosensitive cells found in the retina of vertebrate animals are called cones.
Characteristics of conesThey are structurally similar to rods, but require much higher light intensity to become active.They operate in daylight conditions and are responsible for photopic vision, where the color perception occurs.Therefore, we can conclude that the receptors of the colors are the cones (photosensitive cells that are located in the retina, responsible for us perceiving colors in one way or another).
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How much phenylephrine HCl would be needed to prepare 40mL of a 5% solution?
Answer:
When using small volumes and low-concentration products, it is usually easier
to use the same method to calculate the amount of drug (stock) and diluent as to calculate the amount of active ingredient, since these products are not labeled in percent
Explanation:
Concentrations of the solute can be calculated using the (w/v%) and (m/v%). For 5% phenylephrine hydrochloric acid solution the solute concentration needed will be 2 grams.
What is percentage concentration?Percentage concentration is the calculation of the weight or the mass of the with respect to the volume of the solvent and multiplied by 100. w/v% calculates the concentration based on the weight/volume percentage, whereas m/v% calculates based on mass/volume percentage.
Given,
Percentage = 5%
Volume = 40 mL
Substituting values:
w/v (%) = mass of solute(g) ÷ volume of solution (mL) × 100
5% = mass ÷ 40 × 100
mass = 5 × 40 ÷ 100
= 2 gm
Therefore, 40 ml of 5% phenylephrine HCl can be prepared by 2 gm of solute dissolved in the solution.
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Older adults often experience which of the following?
Increased self-identity
Increased sexual activity
Decreased acute illness
Increased productivity
Older adults often experience increased self-identity as they age which is denoted as option A.
What is Self identity?This refers to the ways in which an individual views himself and increases as people get older.
The other options will experience a decrease as people get old which is why self-identity is the most appropriate choice.
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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
Jason is collecting evidence at a crime scene. He finds a bullet casing and unused ammunition. What should he look for on the casing itself? What will the unused ammunition tell him?
Jason should look for markings called (rifling/casting/impression) on the casing. The unused ammunition will help determine if the casing was from the same (store/gun/lot) as the unused ammunition.
Answer:
Rifling and Lot
Explanation:
I took the test
beta blockers are a class of drugs used to regulate heart rate what effect would a b blocker have on blood pressure
Answer: The blood pressure would be lowered due to B blockers causing the heart to beat more slowly.
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A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older adult client. Which of the following observations should the nurse address to promote a safe environment?
To promote a safe environment during a home visit with an older adult client, the nurse should address the following observations:
Clutter and trip hazards, Lighting, Handrails and grab bars, Non-slip surfaces, Emergency response system
1. Clutter and trip hazards: Ensure that walkways are clear of clutter and any potential trip hazards, such as loose rugs, electrical cords, or furniture.
2. Lighting: Check that there is adequate lighting in all areas of the home, especially in hallways and stairways, to help prevent falls.
3. Handrails and grab bars: Verify that there are handrails in place along stairways and grab bars in the bathroom to assist with balance and prevent falls.
4. Non-slip surfaces: Ensure that there are non-slip surfaces in the bathroom, such as non-slip bath mats or adhesive strips in the bathtub or shower.
5. Emergency response system: Assess if the older adult has access to an emergency response system or a way to call for help in case of an emergency.
By addressing these observations, the nurse can help create a safer environment for the older adult client during their home visit.
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at birth, a xy patient that has a mutation in the gene coding for the enzyme 5-alpha reductase will exhibit
At birth, a XY patient with a mutation in the gene coding for the enzyme 5-alpha reductase will exhibit ambiguous genitalia.
What is Mutation?
Mutation is the process of changing or altering the genetic material of an organism. It can be caused by various factors, such as exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses, or even by mistakes that occur during DNA replication. Mutation can lead to changes in the organism's physical characteristics, as well as changes in its behavior.
In the case of the XY patient, this enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is necessary for the normal development of male sexual organs. Without this enzyme, the body cannot produce enough dihydrotestosterone and male sexual organs do not develop normally. The result is atypical external genitalia that can appear to be both male and female. In addition, the patient may also have an underdeveloped prostate and underdeveloped male secondary sex characteristics, such as facial hair and a deep voice.
What is Ambiguous genitalia?
Ambiguous genitalia is a condition in which an infant's external genitals do not have the typical appearance of either a boy or girl. In some cases, ambiguous genitalia may be a sign of an underlying medical condition, such as an intersex disorder or a chromosomal abnormality. Treatment for ambiguous genitalia typically involves the use of hormone therapy, surgery, and sometimes psychological therapy.
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De Roode mentions a risk in using synthetic medicine when treating certain pathogens. What is that risk?
Answer:
The risk is that pathogens constantly evolve and man-made medicine is becoming ineffective.
GabrielSumagui wrote the f-word in Thai.
Document your handoff report in the situation-background-assessment-recommendation (SBAR) format to communicate what further care Jackson Weber needs.Situation: Last night the patient experienced a 3 minute tonic clonic seizure, and had another one during my assessment.Background: Patient is a 5 year old male Caucasian. Two years ago was diagnosed with tonic clonic seizures and for the last 15 months he hasn't seen his neurologist. Patient takes oral phenobarbital to control seizures.Assessment: Patient currently has an intravenous infusion in his left arm running D5 NS+20 mEq KCl/L at 58 mL/hr. Patient has no pain, auscultation of major organs show no issues, he eats well, has been urinating normally, and vital signs are stable. He is awake and alert, pupils reactive to light, ROM within expected range.Recommendation: Continue to monitor patient and reassess neuro checks Q4 hr.
The treatment's objective is to improve venous return while preserving a good healing landscape.
The degree of arterial insufficiency will decide whether or not contraction is safe. In practical use, contraction systems range from inelastic to elastic contraction tapes, wrap around contraction garments, contraction socks, and curvaceous pump bias. Nonetheless, based on patient evaluation, the most preferred approach of acclimating contraction therapy in the treatment of mixed aetiology leg ulcers is the use of elastic multilayer tapes. The vascular platoon will decide the arterial element and the operations necessary. Reduced contraction can be applied for the venous element under the supervision of the vascular platoon.
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what is commenting inappropriate comments on social media a breach of?
Answer: Community Guidelines or Terms of Service
Explanation: Commenting inappropriate comments on social media can be considered a breach of the platform's community guidelines or terms of service which are a part of the platform's policies.. These guidelines typically outline the expected behavior of users and prohibit actions such as bullying, harassment, hate speech, or sharing inappropriate content. By commenting inappropriate comments, you are violating these rules and potentially subject to consequences such as warnings, account suspension, or even permanent bans from the platform. It is important to maintain a respectful and positive online environment by engaging in constructive and appropriate discussions.
Learn more about Brainly's Policies here: https://brainly.com/our-policies which include Brainly's Term of Service and Community Guidelines.
what is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions?
The purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions is to increase the competence within the profession.
Healthcare ethics is a set of principles that physicians, nurses, and other clinicians follow when delivering medical treatment. It blends moral ideas with a sense of one's responsibility to others. Healthcare ethics is concerned with how providers treat their patients.
Healthcare ethics are crucial because professionals must recognize healthcare quandaries, make excellent judgements and decisions based on their beliefs, and stay within the rules that regulate them. Using AHP to quantify the relative relevance of the numerous medical ethical principles for individuals, the most significant principle is, without ambiguity, "Non maleficence".
The CMA Code of Ethics and Professionalism articulates the medical profession's ethical and professional obligations and duties. It is based on and reinforces the profession's basic principles and commitments, and it emphasizes obligations connected to modern medical practice.
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