if a spacecraft weighs 1,200 lbf on the moon (g=5.31 ft/s^2 ), what will be the approximate weight on phobos (g=0.0547 ft/s^2 ) be?

Answers

Answer 1

If a spacecraft weighs 1,200 lbf on the moon (g=5.31 ft/s^2 ), then the approximate weight on phobos  (gravitational constant g=0.0547 ft/s^2 )  is 12.34 lbf.

To find the approximate weight of the spacecraft on Phobos, we need to use the formula:

Weight = Mass x Gravity

Since the mass of the spacecraft is not given, we cannot directly calculate its weight on Phobos. However, we can use the weight on the moon to find the mass, and then use that to calculate the weight on Phobos.

First, we need to convert the weight of the spacecraft on the moon from pounds-force (lbf) to pounds-mass (lbm), using the conversion factor 1 lbf = 1 lbm x gmoon, where gmoon is the gravitational acceleration on the moon:

Weight on moon (lbm) = Weight on moon (lbf) ÷ gmoon


Weight on moon (lbm) = 1200 ÷ 5.31
Weight on moon (lbm) = 225.73

Now that we have the mass of the spacecraft on the moon, we can use it to find the weight on Phobos:

Weight on Phobos = Mass x Gphobos
Weight on Phobos = 225.73 lbm x 0.0547 ft/s^2
Weight on Phobos ≈ 12.34 lbf

Therefore, the approximate weight of the spacecraft on Phobos would be around 12.34 pounds-force.

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Related Questions

the answer is b :)

Samples of different materials, A and B, have the same mass, but the sample
of A is higher in density. Which statement could explain why this is so?
A. The particles that make up material B are more closely packed
together than the particles that make up material A.
B. The particles that make up material A have more mass than the
particles that make up material B.
C. The sample of material A has greater volume than the sample of
material B.
D. The particles that make up material B have more mass than the
particles that make up material A.

Answers

Answer:

Answer is letter B

Answer:  THE CORRECT ANSWER IS :  The partiles that make up material B are more closely packed together than the partiles that make up material A

Explanation:     I TOOK THE TEST    apex

the force f between two charges q^(1) and q^(2) in a vacuum is proportional to the product of the charges and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance d between the two charges solve the formula for k

Answers

From the formula for coulomb's, the formula for k would be k = Fd²/q1q2.

How to determine the formula for K when using Coulomb's Law?

Here, we are required to solve for k from the Coulomb's formula, F=kq1q2/d².

Solving the formula for k, we obtain;

k = Fd²/q1q2

To solve the formula for k, we need to make k the subject of the formula;

F = kq1q2/d²

Then, F × d² = kq1q2

Therefore, to make k the subject of the formula; we divide both sides of the equation by q1q2.

Therefore, k = Fd²/q1q2.

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Complete question

Coulomb's Law is given by the formula

F=kq1q2/d2

The force F between two charges q1 and q2 in a vacuum is proportional to the product of the charges, and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance d between the two charges. Solve the formula for k.

What is the moment of inertia?
How do you calculate moment of inertia for a mass on a stick?
If a stick has no mass, but it is 3 meters long, and on each end is a 2kg mass, how much inertia does the mass have it if the axis of rotation is perpendicular through the center of the stick?
https://openstax.org/books/university-physics-volume-1/pages/10-5-calculating-moments-of-inertia
the link is supposed to be used for this but im confused so please help and i gotta fill up a whole page with notes except the calculus parts

Answers

stick is like a rod

So

\(\\ \rm\Rrightarrow I=\dfrac{ML^2}{12}\)

\(\\ \rm\Rrightarrow I=\dfrac{2(3)²}{12}\)

\(\\ \rm\Rrightarrow I=\dfrac{9}{6}\)

\(\\ \rm\Rrightarrow I=\dfrac{3}{2}\)

\(\\ \rm\Rrightarrow I=1.5kgm^2\)

Three resistors 10 ohms, 20 ohms, and 30 ohms are connected in series with a 90-volt battery.  Determine the current through each resistor.  Which of the three resistors is the most powerful?

Answers

Since the resistors are in series, the equivalent resistance is the sum of the resistances:

\(\begin{gathered} R=10+20+30 \\ R=60\text{ ohms} \end{gathered}\)

Now, to find the current, let's divide the voltage by the total resistance:

\(\begin{gathered} I=\frac{V}{R} \\ I=\frac{90}{60} \\ I=1.5\text{ A} \end{gathered}\)

The current through each resistor is the same because they are in series: 1.5 A.

To find the most powerful resistor, let's analyze the formula for the power in a resistor:

\(P=I^2\cdot R\)

We can see that the greater the resistance, the greater the power, therefore the most powerful resistor is the 30 ohms resistor.

If force 1 has a magnitude of 5 N (forward) and force 2 has a magnitude of 30 N (forward), what is the net force acting on the object?

A.) 25 N forward
B.) 35 N forward
C.) 25 N backwards
D.) 35 N backwards

Answers

D I am pretty sure thanks

for which colour of light is. the index of refraction of glass largest​

Answers

Answer:

don't know sorry for the irreverent answer..

Answer:

The index of refraction varies with frequency, it doesn't change as light travels from one medium to another, As violet colour has the shortest wavelength and so the refractive index is maximum for it.

the
estimated age of the solar sysytem is 4558 million years, with N =
4.558, what is the value of the exponent, n?

Answers

The estimated age of the solar system is 4558 million years,

with N = 4.558.

The exponent n is a number that represents the power to which the base number is raised.

The exponential function is represented as xn, where x is the base and n is the exponent.

The question seeks to determine the value of n given N and the estimated age of the solar system.

The formula for calculating the value of n is:

N = 10n
Taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:
log(N) = log(10n)
Using the rule of logarithm, log(a^b) = b log(a), we can rewrite the equation as:
log(N) = n log(10)

Since log(10) = 1, we have:
n = log(N)

Substituting N with the estimated age of the solar system, we get:
n = log(4.558)

Using a calculator, we find that log(4.558) is approximately 0.6609.

the value of the exponent, n, is approximately 0.6609.

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Plssss help!!!!
If Marissa has 52 molecules of Carbon Oxide, How many moles are there?

Answers

Answer:

8.6348020882604e-23

Explanation:

A spherical shell of mass and radius is completely filled with a frictionless fluid, also of mass It is released from rest, and then it rolls without slipping down an incline that makes an angle with the horizontal. What will be the acceleration of the shell down the incline just after it is released

Answers

When a spherical shell completely filled with a frictionless fluid is released from rest and rolls without slipping down an incline, the acceleration of the shell can be determined by considering the forces.

The acceleration of the shell down the incline can be found by considering the net force acting on it. The forces involved include the gravitational force and the force due to the fluid. The gravitational force can be decomposed into two components: one parallel to the incline (mg sinθ) and one perpendicular to the incline (mg cosθ), where m is the total mass of the shell and fluid, and θ is the angle of the incline.

The force due to the fluid exerts a torque on the shell, causing it to roll without slipping. This force depends on the mass of the fluid and the radius of the shell. The net force can be calculated by subtracting the force due to the fluid from the gravitational force component parallel to the incline: Fnet = mg sinθ - (2/5)mr^2 α, where r is the radius of the shell, and α is the angular acceleration.

Since the shell rolls without slipping, the relationship between linear and angular acceleration is given by α = a/r, where a is the linear acceleration of the shell. By substituting α = a/r into the net force equation, we can solve for the acceleration: a = (5/7)g sinθ.

Therefore, the acceleration of the shell down the incline just after it is released is given by a = (5/7)g sinθ, where g is the acceleration due to gravity and θ is the angle of the incline.

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Arctic winds are stronger when the ao is in which phase?

a) positive

b) negative

c) neutral

d) any of the above

Answers

Arctic winds are stronger when the Arctic Oscillation (AO) is in its negative phase. The AO is a large-scale atmospheric circulation pattern that affects weather patterns in the Northern Hemisphere, particularly in the Arctic region. The correct option is b) negative

The AO can be positive, negative, or neutral, depending on the pressure patterns in the Arctic and mid-latitude regions.
When the AO is in its negative phase, there is a stronger pressure difference between the Arctic and mid-latitudes, which leads to stronger winds. This negative phase is characterized by a weakening of the polar vortex, a large-scale low-pressure system over the Arctic.

As a result, cold air from the Arctic is more likely to be displaced southward, bringing colder temperatures and stronger winds to the mid-latitudes. In contrast, when the AO is positive or in a neutral phase, the pressure difference between the Arctic and mid-latitudes is weaker, resulting in weaker winds.

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Which formula can be used to calculate average speed (v) for steady motions?

Answers

I’m pretty sure it’s speed=distance/time

How much heat must be added to 5.0 g of solid lead at 30.°C to convert it to liquid lead at the melting point?

Answers

7.5……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

A power station that is being started up for the first time generates 6120 MWh of energy over a 10 hour period. (i) If the rated power at full capacity is 660 MW, calculate how long it takes the power station to reach its full power output. (You may assume a constant increase in power from zero to full power) (ii) State what type of power station can be started up fastest and explain why the start-up times for other types of power station are slower. Explain briefly, how this is relevant to optimising the usage of windfarms. c) What is the Bremsstrahlung effect and how can it be avoided in shielding design? d) Sketch the electromagnetic field output from an antenna, describing in detail the two main regions in the output field.

Answers

(i)Therefore, it takes approximately 9.27 hours to reach its full power output.(ii)It is necessary to have quick-start power sources, this helps maintain a stable and reliable electricity supply even when wind speeds fluctuate.(c)The Bremsstrahlung effect needs to be considered to ensure proper radiation protection.(d) The near-field region is characterized by strong electric and magnetic fields while the far-field region represents the radiation zone.

(i) To calculate the time it takes for the power station to reach its full power output, we can use the formula:

Energy = Power × Time

Given that the power station generates 6120 MWh of energy over a 10-hour period and the rated power at full capacity is 660 MW, we can rearrange the formula to solve for time:

Time = Energy ÷ Power

Converting the energy to watt-hours (Wh):

Energy = 6120 MWh × 1,000,000 Wh/MWh = 6,120,000,000 Wh

Converting the power to watt-hours (Wh):

Power = 660 MW × 1,000,000 Wh/MW = 660,000,000 Wh

Now we can calculate the time:

Time = 6,120,000,000 Wh ÷ 660,000,000 Wh ≈ 9.27 hours

Therefore, it takes approximately 9.27 hours (or 9 hours and 16 minutes) for the power station to reach its full power output.

(ii) The type of power station that can be started up fastest is a gas-fired power station. Gas-fired power stations can reach full power output relatively quickly because they use natural gas combustion to produce energy.

In contrast, other types of power stations, such as coal-fired or nuclear power stations, have longer start-up times. Coal-fired power stations require time to heat up the boiler and generate steam, while nuclear power stations need to go through a complex series of procedures to ensure safe and controlled nuclear reactions.

This is relevant to optimizing the usage of windfarms because wind power is intermittent and dependent on the availability of wind. This helps maintain a stable and reliable electricity supply even when wind speeds fluctuate.

(c) The Bremsstrahlung effect is a phenomenon that occurs when charged particles, such as electrons, are decelerated or deflected by the electric fields of atomic nuclei or other charged particles. As a result, they emit electromagnetic radiation in the form of X-rays or gamma rays.

In shielding design, the Bremsstrahlung effect needs to be considered to ensure proper radiation protection. These materials effectively absorb and attenuate the emitted X-rays and gamma rays, reducing the exposure of individuals to harmful radiation.

(d) The electromagnetic field output from an antenna can be represented by two main regions:

Near-field region: This region is closest to the antenna and is also known as the reactive near-field. It extends from the antenna's surface up to a distance typically equal to one wavelength. In the near-field region, the electromagnetic field is characterized by strong electric and magnetic field components.

Far-field region: Also known as the radiating or the Fraunhofer region, this region extends beyond the near-field region.The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation.  The far-field region is further divided into the "Fresnel region," which is closer to the antenna and has some characteristics of the near field, and the "Fraunhofer region," which is farther away and exhibits the properties of the far-field.

The transition between the near-field and the far-field regions is gradual and depends on the antenna's size and operating frequency. The size of the antenna and the distance from it determine the boundary between these regions.

In summary, the near-field region is characterized by strong electric and magnetic fields, while the far-field region represents the radiation zone where the energy is radiated away as electromagnetic waves.

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Sitting at the top of a steep hill on a roller coaster (not moving), is an example of:

Answers

It’s an example of gravitational potential energy

Measure the speed of the fourth car of the train when it is at the highest point on the loop.




Show your process and results below.

Answers

We have that the speed of the the fourth car of the train when it is at the highest point  is

v=12.12

From the question we are told

Measure the speed of the fourth car of the train when it is at the highest point on the loop.

Speed of the fourth car

Generally the equation for the Conversation of energy  is mathematically given as

\(0.5mv^2+mgR=0.5mv^2\\\\Therefore\\\\v_1^2=v^2-2gR\\\\V_1^2=21^2-2*9.8*15\\\\\)

v=12.12

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In workplaces where there is continuous noise e.g. mines, workers are encouraged to wear protective gears such as ear muffs provided by the company. This will reduce the noise going into workers ears hence reducing compensation costs. These protective gears have limitations in that they are damaged upon usage, as nothing lasts forever. Workers on the other hand tend to remove their protective gears with the view that they are uncomfortable or they want to hear their colleagues clearly.

Explain the likely reasons for weakening muffs effectiveness.

Answers

In workplaces with continuous noise, such as mines, the use of protective gear like ear muffs is encouraged to reduce the amount of noise entering workers' ears. This not only protects their hearing but also helps decrease compensation costs associated with hearing-related injuries.

However, it is important to recognize that these protective gears have limitations. Over time and with extensive use, they can become damaged and less effective at reducing noise exposure. Despite the importance of wearing protective gear, some workers may choose to remove their ear muffs due to discomfort or the desire to hear their colleagues more clearly. This poses a challenge as it increases their risk of being exposed to excessive noise levels, which can lead to hearing damage or loss.

To address this issue, employers should focus on providing comfortable and properly fitting protective gear that minimizes discomfort. Additionally, regular training and awareness programs can emphasize the importance of consistent use of protective gear and educate workers about the potential long-term consequences of noise exposure. Encouraging an open dialogue between workers and management can also help address any concerns or misconceptions related to the use of protective gear.

Ultimately, striking a balance between comfort and safety is crucial. Employers should strive to provide effective and comfortable protective gear, while workers need to understand the importance of consistent usage to safeguard their hearing health in noisy work environments.

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When are the kinetic and gravitational potential energy levels the same?

Answers

Answer:

the halfway point

Explanation:

As an object falls under the influence of gravity, kinetic energy and potential energy are equal at the halfway point only.

Help PLZ ;)

If the distance between two objects increases, what happens to the force of gravity between them?
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Stays the same

Answers

Answer:

B) Decreases

Explanation:

Gravitational force is inversely proportional to distance. As distance between 2 objects increase, gravitational force between the 2 objects decreases.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The answer would be B

Explanation:

Two solid cubes have the same Mass but their edges are in the ratio of 4:1. What isthe ratio of their densities?​

Answers

Let m be the mass of both cubes. If the smaller cube has side length x, then its volume is x ³. The side lengths of the larger cube have length 4x, so the larger cube's volume is (4x)³ = 64x ³, or 64 times as large as the smaller cube.

The first cube has a density of m/x ³, while the larger one has a density of m/(64x ³) = 1/64 m/x ³, so the ratio of densities is (1/64):1, or 1:64 (larger cube to smaller cube).

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the excitation light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design

Answers

Answer: prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

Explanation:

A fluorometer refers to the device that's used in the measurement of parameters that are of visible spectrum fluorescence. They also prevent excitation light from reaching the detector.

These parameters are used in the identification of the amount and presence of molecules in a medium.

A pitcher throws a ball toward a player holding a softball bat. The bat applies a 10-Newton force to the ball. Which statement correctly describes the reaction force between the bat and the ball?

Answers

Answer:

The reaction force is the force that causes the ball to move toward the bat.

Explanation:

Answer:

D; the reaction force is the force of the ball on the bat.

Explanation:

Drag each tile to the correct box.
Arrange in the correct order the actions and reactions that occur when the
Federal Reserve uses the required reserve ratio in its expansionary
monetary policy
Hiles
ince
Households and businesses
take out more loans,
GDP increases
The money supply increases.
Banks have more money
to lend

Answers

Federal reserve decreases the required reserve ratio.

Banks have more money to lend

Money supply increases

Interest rates fall

Households and business take out more loans

Purchases and investments increases.

There are two types of monetary policies, Expansionary and Contractionary.

The government decides the monetary policy based on the economy of a country. The government will have expansionary monetary policy when it requires more money in the economy. Interest rates are lowered and money supply is increased. This results increase in Gross Domestic products of the country and the economy strengthens.

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Answer:

Below is the answer

Explanation:

Drag each tile to the correct box.Arrange in the correct order the actions and reactions that occur when

A person running has a momentum of 720 kg m/s and is traveling at a velocity of 5 m/s. What is his mass?

144 kg
144 kg

360 kg
360 kg

3,600 kg
3,600 kg

30 kg

Answers

Explanation:

Momentum is mass times velocity.

p = mv

720 kg m/s = m (5 m/s)

m = 144 kg

which of the following are likely to be affected by a magnet?
Check all that apply
A) a DVD
B) A floppy disk
C) A compact disk
D) A credit card

Answers

C hope this helps :)

Answer:ye

Explanation:

which of the following are likely to be affected by a magnet? Check all that apply A) a DVD B) A floppy

name the types of muscle movement

Answers

Answer:

Other movements are involuntary meaning they are not under conscious control such as the contraction of your pupil in bright light muscle tissue is classified into three types according to structure and function skeletal cardiac and smooth

The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.62 m/s^2, approximately a sixth of the value on earth. for a given initial velocity v0, and a given launch angle θ0, the ratio of the range of an ideal projectile on the moon to the range of the same projectile on earth, rmoon/rearth, will be approximately?

Answers

The ratio of the ideal projectile distance on the moon to the same projectile distance on earth, moon/back, is approximately (the acceleration of gravity on the moon is 1.62 m/s², about one-sixth of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. for a given initial velocity v0  , and the specified launch angle θ0) is (option B)

The initial velocity, launch angle, and acceleration due to gravity all affect a projectile's range. The formula for an ideal projectile's range is as follows:

R = v0²sin (2θ0) / g

Where,

v0 = the initial velocity (m/s)

θ0 = the launch angle

g = the acceleration due to gravity

The acceleration caused by gravity is 1.62 m/s² for the moon and 9.8 m/s² for the earth. Ranges on the moon and ranges on earth can be expressed as follows:

R moon / R earth = (1.62 sin (2θ0)) / g

sin (2θ0) = 1.62 / 9.8

Approximately ⅙

Consequently, an ideal projectile's range on the moon is around a sixth of its range on Earth.

The question is incomplete, it should be:

The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.62 m/s², approximately a sixth of the value on earth. for a given initial velocity v0, and a given launch angle θ0, the ratio of the range of an ideal projectile on the moon to the range of the same projectile on earth, rmoon/rearth, will be approximately?

A. ⅓

B. ⅙

C. 1

D. 1/12

E. ⅕

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Which is a negative effect of deforestation on the environment? A. habitat restoration B. desertification C. soil production D. urbanization

Answers

Answer:Deforestation refers to the decrease in forest areas across the world that are lost for other uses such as agricultural croplands, urbanization, or mining activities. Greatly accelerated by human activities since 1960, deforestation has been negatively affecting natural ecosystems, biodiversity, and the climate. The UN’s Food and Agriculture Organization estimates the annual rate of deforestation to be around 1.3 million km2 per decade.

Explanation:

The negative effect of deforestation on the environment is desertification. The correct option is B.

What is desertification?

Desertification is the process by which fertile land becomes desert, typically as a result of drought, deforestation, and inappropriate agriculture or land use practices. It occurs when land that was once able to support vegetation and life becomes increasingly dry, barren, and unable to sustain crops, livestock, or human populations. This can be due to natural causes such as prolonged droughts, but it is often exacerbated by human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, and soil degradation. Desertification can have devastating effects on the environment, leading to soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and reduced productivity of the land. It can also cause social and economic problems, such as displacement of people, food shortages, and conflicts over resources.

Here in the question,

Deforestation is the clearing of trees and other vegetation from an area, leading to the loss of habitat and biodiversity, and disruption of water cycles. It can also cause soil erosion, which can result in the depletion of soil nutrients, reduced productivity, and eventually lead to desertification. Additionally, deforestation contributes to climate change by releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, which can cause global warming and other environmental problems. Habitat restoration, soil production, and urbanization are not negative effects of deforestation but can be impacted by it.

Therefore, The correct answer is B i. e Desertification.

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What are the tubes that equalize pressure to the eardrum in a frog?

Answers

In a frog, the tubes that equalize pressure to the eardrum are known as Eustachian tubes. It helps in maintaining the pressure balance between the middle ear and the external environment.The Eustachian tubes in frogs are similar to the ones present in humans. The Eustachian tube is a long, narrow tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx.

The tube is lined with mucous membranes and is responsible for regulating air pressure in the middle ear to equalize it with the pressure outside the body. This ensures that the eardrum vibrates correctly and that sound waves can be transmitted to the inner ear.The Eustachian tube in frogs is crucial to their survival as they are amphibians, and they need to have a functional hearing system for detecting predators and prey. The Eustachian tube helps the frog to regulate the pressure in the middle ear while swimming, which prevents damage to the eardrum due to pressure differences.The Eustachian tube also serves another purpose in frogs, it is used for respiration. Frogs breathe through their skin and mouth, but when they dive underwater, they use their Eustachian tubes to take in air. The frog closes its mouth and nostrils, while the lungs are empty, to draw in oxygen-rich air through the Eustachian tubes. This way, the frog can stay underwater for longer periods without suffocating or drowning.

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Choose the statement that correctly describes the solar neutrino problem. a. Detectors were only looking for one kind of neutrino and were not sensitive to other types of neutrinos. b. Detectors were observing faster—than—light neutrinos. c. Detectors were not sensitive enough to observe any types of neutrinos. d. The neutrinos detected were too large based on theoretical predictions.

Answers

The statement that correctly describes the solar neutrino problem is: a. Detectors were only looking for one kind of neutrino and were not sensitive to other types of neutrinos.

What is Neutrinos?

Neutrinos are subatomic particles that belong to the family of leptons, which also includes electrons. They have no electric charge, very little mass, and interact only weakly with other matter, making them very difficult to detect. Neutrinos are produced by nuclear reactions in the Sun, as well as in supernovae, cosmic rays, and particle accelerators.

The solar neutrino problem refers to a discrepancy between the number of neutrinos predicted by theoretical models of the Sun's nuclear reactions and the number of neutrinos actually detected by experiments on Earth. The early neutrino detectors were designed to detect electron neutrinos, which are the type of neutrinos produced by the Sun's fusion reactions.

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Which statement is best supported by the table?
Wave Wand Y are light waves.
Wave X is a sound wave.
Wave W is a light wave.
Waves X and Y are sound waves.
Waves Y is a sound wave.
Waves X and W are light waves.
o Wave W is a sound wave.
Waves X and Y are light waves.

Which statement is best supported by the table?Wave Wand Y are light waves.Wave X is a sound wave.Wave

Answers

Answer:

wave w is a sound wave

wave x and y are light waves

Answer:

D

Explanation:

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Look at the flag of Sweden below, then answer the question based on the appearance of the lines on the flag help please help How many sides are there in a polygon whose sum of the measures of the interior angles is 720 degrees? What cities labeled on the map are south of 20N? A car travels 480 miles in 12 hours. What is the rate in miles per hour? In hours per mile which of the following are potential weaknesses of wikipedia as a source of credible information for researching speeches? A Bronsted-Lowry base is a proton _____. A Bronsted-Lowry base must contain an available ____ pair of ________ in its formula in order to form a(n) _______ bond to the H+.Acceptor, lone, electrons, covalent the nurse is conducting health assessments for school-age children. which play preferences would the nurse anticipate finding in a 7-year-old girl? What is the strand that would pair up with ATTCAAGC? which of the following factors most likely contributed to the trend in chicagos population from 1890 to 1940 ? The driver of a car traveling at a speed of 29 m/s slams on the brakes and comes to a stop in 5 s. If we assume that the speed changed at a constant rate (constant net force), what was the average speed during this 5 s interval A group is meeting to discuss whether enrollment will continue to increase if tuition is raised by 3%. What type of question will they be discussing? Sort each book using the dewey decimal system. Samuel's family took a road trip to Mount Rushmore. Samuel fell asleep after theyhad travelled 990 miles. If the total length of the trip was 1000 miles, whatpercentage of the total trip had they travelled when Samuel fell asleep? Write an equation in Standard form that represents the graphed line. What is the domain of the function f(x) = sqrt x-9 + 5? A coffee distributor needs to mix a(n) Organic Free Trade coffee blend that normally sells for $9.40 per pound with a Gualtemala Antigua coffee blend that normally sells for $12.90 per pound to create 50 pounds of a coffee that can sell for $12.34 per pound. How many pounds of each kind of coffee should they mix?A) Write an equation using the information as it is given above that can be solved to answer the question. Use x as your variable to represent the quantity of Organic Free Trade coffee blend.Equation: B) Answer: They must mix pounds of the Organic Free Trade Blend pounds of the Gualtemala Antigua Blend.Round your answers to the nearest whole number of pounds.Submit QuestionQuestion 2 Which of the following statements is true of the debt to equity ratio?a) The higher the debt to equity ratio, the greater the company's financial risk.b) The higher the debt to equity ratio, the lower the company's financial risk.c) If the debt to equity ratio is greater than 1, then the company is financing more assets with equity than with debt.d) If the debt to equity ratio is less than 1, then the company is financing more assets with debt than with equity. what are two steps you can use to analyze influences Which of the following was most likely the consequence of the American reservation plan for Native Americans?- The Native Americans did not agree with what happened to them as a people, but continued to prosper.- The system weakened the tribes and is, in part, responsible for many of the problems that Native Americans continue to face today.- Native Americans never went to the reservations, instead fighting for and winning the right to stay in their homelands.- The Native Americans did quite well adjusting to American culture and became a highly respected part of society. Solve for x.Leave your answer I simplest radical form