In what phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane reform around the nucleus

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:The nuclear envelope reforms during the phase of mitosis called telophase. Telophase is the last phase of mitosis.

Explanation:


Related Questions

Eskers, moraines, and crevasses are all erosion features that are associated with glaciers.
i. True
ii. False

Answers

true. all of the following are formed by glaciers or glacier water runoff

Eskers, moraines, and crevasses are all erosion features that are associated with glaciers. The given statement is true.

When chemical energy is released?

All exergonic processes produced in the cell, through which substances oxidize and chemical energy is released, are grouped under the name of cellular respiration, but to break down an organic molecule the cells employ, mainly dehydrogenations that can be carried carried out in the presence or absence of atmospheric O2 oxygen.

There are therefore two types of breathing and they are aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration. The latter also called fermentation. Aerobic respiration  (oxidative phosphorylation)

Use molecular O2.It degrades glucose to CO2 and H2OExergonicRecovers about 50% of chemical energyPresent in most organisms.It uses enzymes located in the mitochondria.

Therefore, Eskers, moraines, and crevasses are all erosion features that are associated with glaciers. The given statement is true.

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Can someone help me on this question please ! For brainliest

Can someone help me on this question please ! For brainliest

Answers

The aquifer may not refill.

True or false brainlyyy

Answers

Answer:

THE BRAINLY THE BRAINLY IS REAL

Explanation:

so yes / true

I’m an expert please give brainliest

This event occurs directly following mitosis, and is called

metaphase
anaphase
prophase I
cytokinesis

This event occurs directly following mitosis, and is calledmetaphaseanaphaseprophase Icytokinesis

Answers

Cytokinesis is the term used to describe the process that follows mitosis.

What occurs during the mitosis?

A cell divides into two identical daughter cells after duplicating every component of it, including its chromosomes, during the mitotic process. The processes of mitosis are meticulously regulated by certain genes since this process is so crucial. Cancer can develop when mitosis is improperly controlled, among other health issues.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

In the cell division process known as mitosis, the chromosomes multiply and are evenly distributed across the two daughter cells. Each daughter cell has a same number of chromosomes to the parent cell, making the cell type diploid. Mitosis is hence also known as equational division.

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What are the best techniques for anchoring aquarium plants in substrate to ensure their healthy growth?

Answers

A few techniques that can be used to anchor aquarium plants in substrate for healthy growth includes; Tieing the plant to a rock or piece of driftwood, Using plant weights, Planting the plant in a pot and Using aquarium glue.

How would you use the above mentioned techniques to anchor aquarium plants?

Tying the plant to a rock or piece of driftwood: This method works great for plants with rhizomes, like Anubias and Java Fern, as you mentioned.

Planting the plant in a pot: Some plants can do well when planted in pots with their preferred substrate. This is good because it is in a controlled enviroment and you can move plant without disturbing the plant.

plant weights: This method is said to be okay for buoyant plants that tend to float away before their roots can establish. However this can be disadvantagous if the weight is made with lead.

aquarium glue: This can be very effective for certain types of plants. It's important to use a glue that is safe for aquarium use (i.e., cyanoacrylate-based glues).

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I need help with project

Answers

Ok what is it about?

The diagram below represents an event that occurs in the BLOOD

Answers

The blood clotting process is seen in the diagram. It demonstrates how the blood's platelets, fibrin, and other elements combine to produce a clot.

What is platelets?

Blood contains tiny, colourless cell fragments called platelets, which are crucial for clotting. Thrombocytes are another name for platelets. In the bone marrow, they are made and then released into the blood. To stop bleeding, the body uses platelets to assist clots form. In blood vessel damage, they group together and create plugs to stop the bleeding. Additionally, platelets exude substances that support clotting and aid in blood vessel healing. A platelet's lifespan is roughly 10 days until it is destroyed by the body. Between 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood constitute a normal platelet count. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count.

In order to stop additional bleeding, platelets and fibrin combine to create a plug. This structure strengthens the clot. This procedure is crucial for limiting excessive blood loss and maintaining the circulatory system's integrity.

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The complete question is,

The diagram below represents an event occurs in the blood. Which statement best describes this event?

The diagram below represents an event that occurs in the BLOOD

From the start codon through the stop codon, the length of the
fully processed AURKA mRNA is 1,212 nucleotides. Calculate the number of amino
acids in the polypeptide chain coded for by the mRNA.

Answers

Answer:

404 amino acids  

Explanation:

The translation is the process by which a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule is used as a template to synthesize a protein in the ribosomes. During translation, each triplet of nucleotides or 'codon' determines one specific amino acid of the growing polypeptide chain (i.e., the protein). In this case, the length of the fully processed AURKA mRNA consists of 1,212 nucleotides, thereby the length of the polypeptide chain will be 404 amino acids (protein length = 1,212 / 3 = 404 amino acids).

Fill in the blank
Most sex-linked Gene's are on the ____ chromosome, simply because they are built of much more DNA. However, _____ are more likely than _____ to exhibit sex-linked traits.

Answers

Answer: most sex-linked genes are on the X chromosomes because they are larger than Y chromosomes. Males are more likely than females to exhibit sex-linked traits

Explanation:

Males are more likely than females to display recessive traits because a single recessive gene on the X chromosome is often not matched by a Y chromosome allele and therefore expressed.

Drag the tiles to the correct locations. The tiles can be used more than once.
Identify which type of reaction the feature occurs in.
light-dependent reactions
light-independent reactions
Feature
releases oxygen
fixes carbon dioxide
takes place in the stroma
takes place in the grana
produces ATP
Type of Reaction

Answers

The correct answers are:

Releases oxygen: Light-dependent reactions.Fixes carbon dioxide: Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle).Takes place in the stroma: Light-independent reactions.Takes place in the grana: Light-dependent reactions.Produces ATP: Light-dependent reactions.

The features mentioned correspond to specific steps or characteristics of photosynthesis, which is a process carried out by plants and some other organisms to convert sunlight into energy. Photosynthesis consists of two main sets of reactions: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle or dark reactions).

Now let's match the features with the appropriate type of reaction:

Releases oxygen:

This feature occurs in the light-dependent reactions. During the light-dependent reactions, water molecules are split, and oxygen gas (O2) is released as a byproduct.

Fixes carbon dioxide:

This feature occurs in the light-independent reactions. The light-independent reactions utilize the energy and ATP generated in the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into carbohydrates through a process known as carbon fixation.

Takes place in the stroma:

This feature occurs in the light-independent reactions. The light-independent reactions take place in the stroma, which is the fluid-filled space within the chloroplasts, specifically in the chloroplasts' inner membrane.

Takes place in the grana:

This feature occurs in the light-dependent reactions. The light-dependent reactions take place in the thylakoid membranes of the grana, which are the stacked membrane structures within the chloroplasts.

Produces ATP:

This feature occurs in the light-dependent reactions. The light-dependent reactions generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through the process of photophosphorylation, using light energy to convert ADP (adenosine diphosphate) into ATP.

Type of Reaction:

Releases oxygen, takes place in the grana, and produces ATP: Light-dependent reactions.Fixes carbon dioxide and takes place in the stroma: Light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle).

In conclusion, light-dependent reactions: Releases oxygen, takes place in the grana, and produces ATP, and light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle): Fixes carbon dioxide and takes place in the stroma.

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Final answer:

The features 'releases oxygen', 'produces ATP' and 'takes place in the grana' are associated with light-dependent reactions. The 'fixes carbon dioxide' and 'takes place in the stroma' features are attributed to light-independent reactions.

Explanation:

In photosynthesis, two types of reactions occur, which can be categorized as light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions. We can locate features to their corresponding categories based on their characteristics. The releases oxygen and produces ATP features are part of the light-dependent reactions, which take place in the grana. These reactions utilize light energy more than once to convert water and ADP (adenosine diphosphate) into oxygen and ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

On the other hand, the fixes carbon dioxide feature is part of the light-independent reactions which take place in the stroma. This is where the carbon dioxide is fixed into glucose, a form of sugar, using the ATP produced in light-dependent reactions.

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Which of these best compares the conditions at Location X and Location Y?
A. It is day at Location X and night at Location Y.
B. It is winter at Location X and summer at Location Y.
C. There are more hours of daylight at Location X than at Location Y.
D. The moon is brighter when viewed from Location X than when viewed from Location Y.​

Which of these best compares the conditions at Location X and Location Y? A. It is day at Location X

Answers

Answer:

B. It is winter at Location X and summer at Location Y.

Explanation:

In pea plants, round pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. If a heterozygous round pea plant is crossed with a homozygous round pea plant, what percentage of the offspring will be homozygous round
Pls help!

Answers

100% of the offspring will be homozygous round in this cross.

What is a homozygous?

A homozygous round is an organism that has two identical copies (alleles) of a particular gene that codes for the trait "round." This means the organism will always express the round trait, regardless of the environment or the presence of other alleles.

This is because the round pea plant that is heterozygous still carries two copies of the round gene. When it is crossed with a homozygous round pea plant, all of the offspring will have two copies of the round gene, making them homozygous round.

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You were preparing the slides and accidentally spilled some broth inoculated with unknown but potentially highly pathogenic bacteria over the table. Your partner did not notice that and put the marker on that spot while labeling the slides. Then he passed marker to the other working pair of students. Everybody routinely washed their hands with regular soap by the end of the lab and left home.
How many direct and indirect transmission episodes could you expect after all?
A. 1 direct and 3 indirect transmissions
B. 1 direct and 2 indirect transmissions
C. 3 indirect transmissions
D. Unknown number of direct and indirect transmissions

Answers

Answer:

C. 3 indirect transmissions

Explanation:

In epidemiology, direct transmission is considered to occur when an individual has direct contact with a pathogen, which infects him and develops a disease. Indirect infections, on the other hand, occur when individuals come into contact with the pathogen through a transmission vehicle.

In this case, we can conclude that in the question above, there were 3 cases of indirect transmission. This is because all people who had contact with the pathogen, established that contact through the contaminated marker. In this case, the marker is a transmission vehicle.

What is the end result of transcription in DNA vs RNA Amoeba Sisters?

Answers

Answer:

DNA shouldn’t ge t all the credit! Fo r this portion, check out the Amoeba Siste rs DNA vs. RNA video. Then, write “D” if for DNA, “R ” if for RNA, or “BOTH” if it pertains to both DNA and RNA.

Explanation:

hope this helps have a lovely day

The genetic code is _______________because more than one codon codes for the same amino acid.

Answers

Answer:

Degenerate

Explanation:

The genetic code is degenerate because there are more than one codon code for the same amino acid.

where is epithelial tissue found

Answers

Answer:

Epithelial tissues are widespread throughout the body. They form the covering of all body surfaces, line body cavities and hollow organs, and are the major tissue in glands.

Explanation:

Hope this helps and have a great day.

The inheritance pattern of one gene will not affect the inheritance pattern of another gene. This is known as (1 point)
O independent assortment.
O genetic variation.
O crossing over.
O random distribution.

Answers

Independent assortment occurs only in independent genes that are far away from each other. A) Independent assortment states that the inheritance pattern of one gene will not affect the inheritance pattern of another gene.

What is independent assortment?

Independent assortment is a law that establishes that the alleles from two or more different genes distribute in gametes independently from each other. In other words, a gamete receives an allele from a gene that does not depend on nor influence the allele of another gene in the same gamete. This can only be applied to independent genes.

Many genes segregate independently after crossing over because they are located far away from each other. But some other genes are too close and they do not segregate independently. These are the linked genes that do not exhibit an independent distribution, and they inherit together more frequently.

Option A is correct. Independent assortment states that the inheritance pattern of one gene will not affect the inheritance pattern of another gene.

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Name the two glands that control the nervous system.

Answers

Answer:

pituitary and adrenal

It is the hypothalamus and pituitary gland

Most
earthquakes
occur near
what
geological
features?
A. tsunamis
B. ice sheets
C. at tectonic plate boundaries
D. away from tectonic plates

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

because when tectonic plates crash into each other they can cause tsunamis, and earthquakes.

Hope it helps!

Connective tissue types can be categorized by the extracellular matrix that the cells excrete. What types of extracellular substances will you observe during lab

Answers

Answer: Different connective tissues contain different extracellular matrix.

Explanation:

Connective tissues can be defined as those tissues which connect and support other tissues of the human or animal body.

Extracellular matrix of bone: It includes organic substances like proteoglycans, glycoproteins, calcium, and other minerals.

Extracellular matrix of blood: Plasma is a fluid substance in blood in which the solid components like red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets float.

Extracellular matrix of cartilage: It consists of fibrous proteins, hyaluronic acid, proteoglycans, and collagen.

which tissue gives rise to secondary growth

Answers

lateral meristem tissues

. Mushroom is under............
i. Genus
ii. Donail
iii. Taxonomy
iv. Species​

Answers

Answer:

Mushrooms are classified under the categories of "Genus" and "Species" in taxonomy. The genus refers to a group or category that includes closely related species, while the species represents a specific type or kind of organism. So, the correct options for mushrooms would be "i. Genus" and "iv. Species."

Why does natural selection occur more when there is competition for resources?

Answers

Natural selection occurs more prominently when there is competition for resources because competition creates selective pressures that drive adaptations and favor certain traits over others.

In any given environment, resources necessary for survival and reproduction, such as food, water, and shelter, are limited. As a result, individuals within a population must compete with one another to obtain these resources.

Competition leads to differential survival and reproductive success among individuals.

Those individuals with advantageous traits or variations that enable them to more effectively acquire and utilize resources have a higher likelihood of survival and producing offspring.

These advantageous traits can be physical characteristics, physiological adaptations, or behavioral strategies that provide a competitive edge.

Through natural selection, individuals possessing beneficial traits are more likely to pass on their genes to the next generation, while individuals with less favorable traits are at a disadvantage.

Over time, this process results in the accumulation of beneficial traits within the population, enhancing their overall fitness and adaptation to the specific environment.

Therefore, competition for resources acts as a driving force for natural selection by selecting for traits that enhance an individual's ability to secure limited resources, survive, and reproduce successfully.

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Which tissue type can make up organs
that have voluntary and involuntary
functions?

Answers

Answer:

Key Takeaways

Muscle tissue can be divided functionally, is it under voluntary or involuntary control; and morphologically, striated or non-striated.

By applying these classifications three muscle types can be described; skeletal, cardiac and smooth.

90% H₂O
10%
solute
85% H₂O
15% solute
45% H₂O
65%
solute
75% H₂O
25% solute
30% H₂O
10%
solute
90% H₂O
10% solute
2
5.
8.
40% H₂O
60%
solute
90% H₂O
10% solute
90% H₂O
10%
solute
63% H₂O
37% solute
82% H₂O
18%
solute
25% H₂O
75% solute
3.
6.
9.
75% H₂O
25%
solute
80% H₂O
20% solute
50% H₂O
50%
solute
50% H₂O
50% solute
90% H₂O
10%
solute
80% H₂O
20% solute

Answers

A hypotonic solution is one in which there is more water than solutes, such as when there are 10% solutes and 85% water. When there are more solutes than water, it is called a hypertonic solution, such as 40% water and 60% solutes, whereas in an isotonic solution, the concentration is the same.

What is the significance of the different solutes in the concentration?

There are different solutions based upon the solutes and the solvent ratios, such as when the cell is placed in the hypertonic solutions, the cell removes water to the outside, and when placed in the isotonic solutions, the size of the cell remains the same.

Hence, a hypotonic solution is one in which there is more water than solutes, such as when there are 10% solutes and 85% water. When there are more solutes than water, it is called a hypertonic solution, such as 40% water and 60% solutes, whereas in an isotonic solution, the concentration is the same.

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two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent ____

Answers

Two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent cleavage phase where cells increase in number but are smaller than the zygote.

Embryo development refers to the different stages in the development of an embryo. Embryonic development of plants and animals vary. Even in animals, every species undergoes different stages during embryonic development 2010. Embryonic development involves intricate coordination of molecular, cellular, and tissue-level processes that must occur according to strict schedules of time and location.

While the gestation periods of mammals vary greatly (from 2 weeks in some rodents to nearly 2 years in elephants), the sequence of developmental events and their molecular underpinnings is similar from species to species. This biological correspondence provides the rationale for extrapolating the results obtained in animal studies to humans. Despite this biological consistency within embryos, there are differences among species with regard to various aspects of pregnancy. It is these differences that are explored in risk assessment.

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A. Compare the population trend during 1995-2000 to the population trend during 1985-1990.
Explain how the graph supports your explanation.

Answers

The population trend during 1995-2000 exhibited a more significant growth rate compared to the population trend during 1985-1990. This can be inferred from the graph which showcases a steeper upward trajectory during the former period. Several factors contributed to this disparity.

Firstly, the 1995-2000 period experienced advancements in healthcare and medical technologies, resulting in improved life expectancy and decreased mortality rates. This led to a higher number of individuals surviving into adulthood and having children, thereby increasing the overall population.

Secondly, economic development and industrialization were more prevalent during the later period. Increased job opportunities and economic prosperity attracted individuals from rural areas to urban centers, resulting in a higher rate of migration. This migration contributed to the population growth during 1995-2000.

Furthermore, during the late 1990s, there were relatively stable political conditions and reduced instances of conflict or natural disasters that could have otherwise caused displacement or population decline. This stability provided a conducive environment for population growth.

The graph visually represents these factors by showing a steeper upward slope during 1995-2000 compared to 1985-1990. The increased gradient indicates a higher population growth rate during the former period, supporting the explanation that advancements in healthcare, economic development, migration, and stability were prominent drivers of the population trend.

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Adaptive immunity comprises two branches: humoral immunity and cellular immunity. What are the characteristics of each of the two arms of the adaptive defense system

Answers

Answer:

Adaptive or acquired immunity is that we acquire throughout our lives through vaccines (active), breast milk (passive) or injection of specific artificial or natural antibodies to a certain pathogen (passive).

The two great arms of this immunity are the humoral and the cellular.

The humoral refers to the cytokines and immunomodulatory molecules that are responsible for transmitting fundamental messages between defense cells in order to coordinate the destruction of the pathogen between them.

Instead, cellular immunity speaks about cell lineage such as b, t, tcd4 lymphocytes, natural killers, plasmacytes, etc.

It can be said that the humoral factor is the one that coordinates the pathways and the relationships between the cells of the acquired immunity, both are important because the two need each other for adaptive immunity to work.

Explanation:

Examples of the humoral factor: pro and anti inflammatory cytokines, interleukins, complement chain, antibodies, TNF alpha, beta, etc.

Examples of cellular factor: plasmacyst, b lymphocyte, t lymphocyte, NT lymphocyte

Which of the following influences the amount of ozone pollution near Earth's surface?
O An area's weather patterns
O Nearby water resources
O Volcanic eruptions
O Plants undergoing photosynthesis

Answers

All the four options can lead to ozone pollution near the earth's surface.

Ozone Pollution- Increased wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness are brought on by ozone pollution, which results from hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide emissions from cars and other sources mixed with sunshine.

Plants undergoing photosynthesis- Significant producer of VOCs (Volatile Organic Compounds) is woody vegetation. Before they react to generate ozone in the atmosphere, where it can linger for several weeks, NOx and VOCs can be transported over great distances by local weather patterns.Volcanic eruptions- Volcanoes probably generate enough bromine to deplete the ozone layer locally and alter the chemistry of the stratosphere. According to estimates, 1 to 5 percent of ozone damage is thought to be caused by volcanoes, 15 to 20 percent by other natural sources, and a staggering 75 to 85 percent by human activity.Water resources- From farms, factories, and towns, streams and rivers transport pollutants like chemicals, fertilizers, and heavy metals into our bays and estuaries, where they are then transported out to sea. The wind also brings in marine waste, particularly plastic, as does water from storm drains and sewage systems.Weather Patterns- As a result of global warming, there will be an increase in more extreme weather, including heat waves, extreme rainfall events, and other phenomena. Because the chemical reactions that produce ozone in the atmosphere take place more often in hot temperatures, heat waves increase the amount of ground-level ozone pollution.

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Answer:

An area's weather patterns

Explanation:

the teacher told me

Do plants take in air with their roots?

Answers

Answer:

No

Explanation:

No, plants do not take in air with their roots. Roots are designed to absorb water and minerals from the soil. In order to get the air and carbon dioxide they need for photosynthesis, plants have specialized structures called stomata in their leaves and stems that allow air to enter and exit. These stomata regulate the movement of gases into and out of the plant, so the plant can take in the carbon dioxide it needs and release the oxygen it produces.

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In a survey of 720 human resource professionals, each was asked about the importance of the education of a job applicant. The survey subjects were randomly selected by pollsters from a reputable market research firm. A 20-GHz radar has an antenna with a diameter of 2m. The transmitted power is 1kW.a) What is the gain of the antenna if the aperture efficiency is 0.85? Assume all other "efficiencies" are unity.b) What is the power density (W/m2 ) at a point 30km from the radar in the center of the radar beam?c) If there is a 1 meter square metal plate (i.e. perfect reflector) placed at the center of the beam at 30km and oriented normal to the beam, what is the directivity of the plate? which is the correct relationship for the flux of a to the surface of s at constant pressure, temperature, and diffusivity? na In which one of the following is the best Lewis structure a resonance structure? (central atoms are bold)A.CO2B.ClO3-C.COCl2D.NO2+E.HCN 2+5y-18 if x is 5 and y is 2 What happened to Dorothy in The Wizard of Oz? Given the following group of numbers (8, 12, 4, 8, 6, 0, 9, 11, 3, 10) which of the following is (are) true? The mean is 7.1 The median is 1.6 The mode is 0 Which argument for a safe driving campaign makes an emotional appeal? What are three new things that you learned about the creation of the universe? how do I tell if a fraction is bigger or smaller than another fraction? 2 Cos^X + Sin X - 2 = 0 These are two separate questions, please help. Reflect (-4, 3) over the y-axis.Then translate the result to the left 3 units.What are the coordinates of the final point? Compute and completely simplify the difference quotient for f(x) = X + 8 f(x + h) - f(x) h X Rationalize the numerator and simplify the expression, assuming x > 0. 6- x = Amy Company sold merchandise of $8,000 to Tory Turnbull with terms 2/10, n/30. Amy Company recorded this transaction using the gross method. If Tory Turnbull paid for all the merchandize within the discount period, the journal entry that Amy Company will make to record the collection of cash would include a: a. Credit to Sales Discount of $160 b. Credit to Account receivable $7,840 c. Debit to Sales Discount of $160 d. Credit to Cash of $160 Use the following information to answer the questions 18 & 19. Alicia Corporation was established on 1/1/2011. The ending balance of Allowance for doubtful account was $2,000 on 12/31/2011. During 2012, the company experienced the following: Beginning balance of Accounts receivable account was $50,000 credit sales $100,000 collections on credit sales $60,000 aging analysis of accounts deemed uncollectible at 12/31/2012 shows $8,000 of potentially uncollectible accounts. No accounts receivable was determined to be uncollectible during 2012. 18. What is Alicia's net book value of accounts receivable on January 1, 2013? a. $100,000 b. $32,000 c. $82,000 d. $40,000 e. $90,000 19. Assuming that Alicia uses the aging approach to estimate uncollectible accounts, what is the amount of bad debt expense for 2012? a. $6,000 b. $7,000 c. $8,000 d. $9,000 e. $12,000 One common system for computing a grade point average (GPA) assigns 4 points to an A, 3 points to a B, 2 points to a C, 1 point to a D, and 0 points to an F. What is the GPA of a student who gets an A in a 3-credit course, a B in each of three 4 -credit courses, a C in a 3redit course, and a D in a 2-credit course? why did Uncle Toms Cabin caused more people in the North to ban slavery. Explain how the Social environment influence the physical environment Orms of obvious, overt prejudice, which are considered inappropriate by most social standards today, are sometimes called:________. In HIJ, i = 53 cm, I=120 and J=30. Find the length of j, to the nearest 10th of a centimeter.