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In comprehensive triage system, the nurse obtain the patient's chief complaint, medical and medication history, and vital signs and perform a focused assessment before assigning an acuity level.
What information does the nurse collect during the triage assessment?The nurse collects information during the triage assessment to determine the acuity of the patient's condition and the level of care that is needed. The nurse assesses the patient's symptoms, vital signs, and medical history. This includes questions about the onset and duration of the presenting symptoms, any previous medical conditions, medications, allergies, and lifestyle habits. The nurse assesses the patient's mental state and level of consciousness, pain level and location (if applicable), and any recent changes in health. The nurse also identifies any red flags that may indicate a more serious condition. The nurse collects information about the patient's current living situation and any risk factors that may contribute to their condition, such as poor nutrition or lack of access to medical care. The nurse also assesses the patient's ability to comply with medical care and may ask if the patient has family or support systems to help manage their condition. The nurse records all of this information in the patient's medical chart and uses it to prioritize care and alert other members of the healthcare team of any potential risks.To learn more about triage system refer to:
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Related Questions
Explain how snp profiles can factor into the decision to prescribe a specific medication. use specific evidence from this activity or from the gslc site to build your case.
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According to SNPS, a patient may respond to a certain medicine poorly, moderately, or favorably.
Define the term snp profiles?A single nucleotide substitution within DNA is referred to as a nucleotide polymorphism (SNP), and it occurs in more than 1% of the general population.
If the SNPs that are being tested earlier are eliminated, there is a chance that the patient will react poorly to a medicine.The mixture of SNPs that results from a unique number of SNP points indicates a variety of potential alterations.Identification of the gene that the medicine acts on would be the first step. Then, you would examine the SNP profile of the person who may be receiving the medicine and contrast it with how previous people who have taken this medication have responded to it .Thus, By understanding the variation of a specific enzyme through the SNP profile, they can predict how a patient's body will respond even without comparing them to other patients.
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A pregnant woman visits her obstetrician for a 32 week check-up. The doctor notes a uterus that is measuring greater than 32 weeks gestation and believes that she has an excessive amount of amniotic fluid. You would expect to see which of the following diagnoses in her medical record?
A. Kernicterus
B. Eclampsia
C. Hyperemesis
D. Polyhydramnios
E. Oligohydraminos
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The women with excessive amount of amniotic fluid is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The correct option to this question is D.
In cases of polyhydramnios, the amniotic sac around the foetus is overfilled. Your unborn child's womb is filled with amniotic fluid. A checkup in the later stages of pregnancy usually reveals an excessive amount of amniotic fluid.
In one to two percent of pregnancies, polyhydramnios develops. Since amniotic fluid gradually accumulates throughout the second half of pregnancy, the majority of polyhydramnios cases are moderate. Breathlessness, premature labour, as well as other signs and symptoms of severe polyhydramnios, may occur.
The risk of polyhydramnios increases if the infant does not consume and absorb the amniotic fluid in the recommended levels. When a newborn has certain medical conditions, such as: Diaphragmatic hernia, gastroschisis, and other gastrointestinal problems such duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia
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Name the top portion of this bone
A. sacrum
B.coccyx
C.manubrium
D.sternum
Answers
the supplemental questions in the defense and veterans pain rating scale include a patient report of how pain is impacting all of the following except
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The supplemental questions in the Defense and Veterans Pain Rating Scale (DVPRS) include a patient report of how pain is impacting all of the following except medication side effects, option 4 is correct.
The Defense and Veterans Pain Rating Scale (DVPRS) aims to understand how pain affects a patient's sleep quality, physical function, and emotional well-being. By examining these areas, healthcare providers can gain insights into the overall impact of pain on an individual's daily life.
However, the DVPRS does not directly inquire about medication side effects. While medication side effects are important to consider, they are not specifically included in the supplemental questions of the DVPRS. It is crucial for healthcare providers to separately assess and address any potential side effects associated with pain medications to ensure optimal pain management, option 4 is correct.
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The correct question is:
The supplemental questions in the Defense and Veterans Pain Rating Scale (DVPRS) include a patient report of how pain is impacting all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Sleep quality
2) Physical function
3) Emotional well-being
4) Medication side effects
difference between an academic medical center and a community hospital
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Answer:
First of all, A CMC is a non-academic provider such as a community hospital. Compared to AMCs, CMCs are not as involved in graduate medical education, nor in federally funded research. Their patient populations also look different, with a higher share of privately insured individuals, and their staff members may be more generalist.
Explanation:
An academic medical center and a community hospital differ in several key aspects:
Mission and Purpose:
An academic medical center is primarily focused on medical education, research, and the advancement of medical knowledge. It is affiliated with a university or medical school and often plays a significant role in training healthcare professionals, conducting research studies, and providing specialized and complex medical care. In contrast, a community hospital's primary focus is on providing healthcare services to the local community, including general medical care, emergency services, and routine procedures.
Medical Education and Research: Academic medical centers serve as teaching hospitals and are closely associated with medical schools or universities. They provide clinical training opportunities for medical students, residents, and fellows, fostering a collaborative environment for medical education and research.
Specialized Services: Academic medical centers often offer a broader range of specialized and tertiary care services. They have specialized departments and centers of excellence, providing advanced treatments, specialized surgeries, and access to cutting-edge technologies. \
Patient Population: Academic medical centers often serve a more diverse and complex patient population. They attract patients seeking specialized care, those with complex medical conditions, and individuals participating in clinical trials or research studies.
Resources and Expertise: Academic medical centers generally have access to greater resources, including research funding, advanced technologies, and highly specialized medical professionals.
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Loss of smell often precedes the major symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease and Parkinson’s disease. What additional information is needed to use this association to prevent or treat these diseases?
Answers
Answer:
CORONA VIRUS!!
Explanation:AAAAHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH
explain the difference between the brand name and the generic name.
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The generic name of assigned by the manufacturer who develops the drug. The brand name of the drug is what it is marketed under.
What is generic and brand name drug?Every medicine has 2 names: a brand name, from the pharmaceutical company that markets the medicine. a generic name, which is the medicine's active ingredient that makes it work.
A generic drug is a medication with the exact same active ingredient as the brand-name drug, is taken the same way and offers the same effect.
The difference between brand name and generic drugs is in the circumstances of producing the drugs. While brand name drug refers to the name giving by the producing company, generic drug refers to a drug produced after the active ingredient of the brand name drug.
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cardiovascular system disorder questions with multiple choices
Answers
Answer:
You have to put the questions and their answers for people to be able to answer your questions.
Explanation:
Caleb is working as pharmacy technician. He has decided that he wants to continue with his education because he wants to become a pharmacist. Which statement BEST describes Caleb's situation?
a. Caleb has some education but needs to pass the certification exam.
b. Caleb has a license and is wanting to obtain a certificate.
c. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
d. Caleb has passed one PTCE but still needs to pass the other.
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Answer:
C. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
How long does it take to become a forensic pathologist.
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Answer:
13 years
Explanation:
Tracy, a product development team manager, led his team by telling members what to do, rather than allowing members to develop consensus and make their own decisions. This obstacle to teamwork is known as:
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Tracy as a manager tells team members what to do instead of allowing them to develop consensus and make their own decisions, is known as "micromanagement."
Micromanagement can have detrimental effects on both the individuals and the overall team dynamics. When team members are constantly directed on what to do without being given the opportunity to contribute their ideas and insights, it can lead to a lack of motivation and engagement. The team may feel disempowered, as their skills and expertise are underutilized, resulting in decreased job satisfaction and productivity.
Moreover, micromanagement inhibits the development of trust and collaboration within the team. Instead of fostering a sense of ownership and accountability, it creates an atmosphere of dependency on the manager, stifling creativity and innovation. Ultimately, a leader who encourages autonomy, fosters open communication, and promotes shared decision-making can foster a more cohesive and productive team environment.
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efffects of curcumin on oxidative stress
Answers
Curcumin is able to reduce oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation level of stress-associated cellular kinases.
What is Curcumin?Curcumin is a natural plant compound generated by the species Curcuma longa.
This compound (Curcumin) can reduce the oxidative stress of cells by activating signaling pathways that reduce the phosphorylation and activation of kinases.
In conclusion, Curcumin reduces oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation of kinases.
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What is the condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus
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The condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus and into other areas of the body is called endometriosis.
What is the condition?Endometriosis condition can cause pain and discomfort, especially during menstrual periods.
Endometriosis can also lead to infertility in some cases. Treatment for endometriosis can include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition and the individual's symptoms.
Hence, this is the condition that is under study here.
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select the semilunar valves from the left-side menu. in this view, the valves are closed. which arteries are blocked by these closed valves?
Answers
The semilunar valves on the left side menu are the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve. When these valves are closed, the aorta and the pulmonary artery are blocked respectively.
The heart and veins are the other two primary parts of the circulatory system, with arteries making up the majority of it. The fluid (blood for the circulatory system and lymph for the lymphatic system) that travels to and from every organ in the body is carried by arteries, which are tube-like structures.
The arteries and veins transport blood throughout the body, providing the tissues with oxygen and nutrition and removing waste products from the cells. Lymphatic fluid is transported through lymph vessels. (a clear, colorless fluid containing water and blood cells).
Blood is transported from your heart through arteries. Blood is returned to your heart through veins. The tiniest blood channels, capillaries, link veins and arteries.
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A client has a new prescription for analbuterol inhaler and beclomethasone inhaler. What instructions should the nurse.
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mouthpiece. At the same time, press down once
on the container to spray the medication into your
mouth. When you have breathed in fully, remove
the inhaler from your mouth and close your mouth.
Try to hold your breath for about 5 to 10 seconds,
then breathe out gently.
Does it affect circadian rhythms in breathing? and how?
Answers
Answer:
"Circadian rhythms can greatly influence how patients with respiratory conditions respond to certain therapies," said Paul Kvale, MD, FCCP, President of the American College of Chest Physicians.
Which of these examples can be categorized as external disasters?
A.
liquid spill, earthquake
B.
equipment failure, hurricane
C.
liquid spill, equipment failure,
D.
flood, earthquake
Answers
Answer:
The Answer is gonna be B.
equipment failure, hurricane
I hope I helped
A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?
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So if you only have 350mcg you’ll only inject 0.35mg.
You wouldn’t have enough for a 0.7 mg dose of digoxin that’s needed.
I don’t think you’ve put the right measurements maybe nanogram not milligrams ??
how important is the emergency medical services
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Answer:
Because of today's EMS or emergency medical services, countless lives have been saved through the years. The main purpose of EMS to provide for immediate medical care to the people who most need it, without which, heart attacks and accidents would lead to many more fatalities.
Explanation:
PLEASE MARK BRAINLIST
In your own words explain the steps into creating a vaccine.
55 points
Answers
Put the bottle in the shot. Give it to someone.
The physician orders vancomycin 500 mg in 100 mL of D5W IVPB daily to infuse over 2 hours. Tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. Calculate the flow rate in drops per minute.
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Tthe flow rate for the vancomycin infusion is approximately 12.5 drops per minute.
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute, follow these steps:
Determine the total volume to be infused over 2 hours:
Total volume = 100 mL
Convert the infusion time from hours to minutes:
Infusion time = 2 hours * 60 minutes/hour = 120 minutes
Calculate the flow rate in milliliters per minute:
Flow rate (mL/min) = Total volume (mL) / Infusion time (min)
Flow rate = 100 mL / 120 min = 0.8333 mL/min (rounded to four decimal places)
Use the drop factor to convert the flow rate from milliliters per minute to drops per minute:
Flow rate (drops/min) = Flow rate (mL/min) * Drop factor (gtt/mL)
Flow rate = 0.8333 mL/min * 15 gtt/mL = 12.4995 gtt/min (rounded to four decimal places)
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what is the most common site to monitor exercise heart rate?
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Most monitors employ sensors that are attached to your chest strap or wrist. The most accurate heart rate monitors are those with chest straps. Heart rate monitors worn on the wrist are more convenient.
Aerobic exercise lowers the risk of heart disease, stroke, type 2 diabetes, breast and colon cancer, depression, and falls over time. Aim for 150 minutes of moderate-intensity activity per week. Try brisk walking, swimming, jogging, cycling, dancing, or step aerobics programs. "The particular activities that are acceptable for each individual vary greatly due to fitness levels and other constraints that a person may have." Heart rate during exercise gives you real-time data on how hard you're working and whether the activity level has to be increased or decreased for a safe, productive workout.
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Humans occasionally become infected with common colds and flu after flying on
crowded airplanes. Which microscopic biological hazard is most likely responsible?
O food-borne bacteria
O environmental mutagens
O airborne contagions
O vector-borne parasites
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Answer:
c
Explanation:
planes use recycled air
List steps for using epipen ?
Answers
help please !!!
Identify a legal healthcare situation that you have seen on a TV show or movie. What was the situation? What legal violation occurred? How did this violation affect the quality of care? What steps would you, as a healthcare professional, take to address this issue if you discovered this violation at your workplace?
Consider the above questions about a legal healthcare violation that you have seen on a TV show or movie. Your reply should be in complete sentences and at least 100 words.
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a nurse at a long-term care facility is conducting a medication reconciliation for a client who has just moved into the facility. the client is currently taking clopidogrel. the nurse is most justified suspecting that this client has a history of what condition?
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The client is currently taking clopidogrel which makes the nurse most justified suspecting that this client has a history of myocardial infarction and is denoted as option D.
What is Clopidogrel?This refers to a type of medication which functions as an antiplatelet and helps reduce the risk of blood clotting.
On the other hand, myocardial infarction is also referred to as a heart attack which is caused by the blockage of the flow of the blood to the heart which results in its death. Drugs such as clopidogrel is used to treat it which is why option D was chosen as the correct choice.
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The options are:
A) hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accident.
B) hemophilia A.
C) idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
D) myocardial infarction.
What is one of the responsibilities of
Health
care regulatory
agencies?
Answers
Answer:
DHHS agency responsible for developing standards and regulations and conducting inspections and investigations to determine compliance, and propose corrective action for noncompliance in matters related to occupational safety and health.
Hope it is helpful
One of the responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies is to ensure the safety and quality of healthcare services provided to the public. These agencies play a crucial role in overseeing and enforcing regulations and standards that healthcare providers must follow.
Here are some specific responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies:
1. Licensing and Certification: Healthcare regulatory agencies are responsible for licensing and certifying healthcare facilities, such as hospitals, clinics, and nursing homes. They ensure that these facilities meet specific criteria and maintain certain standards of care.
2. Monitoring Compliance: Regulatory agencies monitor healthcare providers to ensure they comply with rules and regulations. This includes conducting inspections, reviewing medical records, and investigating complaints. They also verify that healthcare professionals have the necessary licenses and credentials.
3. Setting Standards: Regulatory agencies establish and enforce standards for healthcare quality and safety. They develop guidelines and protocols that healthcare providers must follow to ensure proper patient care, infection control, medication management, and more.
4. Consumer Protection: These agencies protect consumers by ensuring transparency and accountability in healthcare. They may handle consumer complaints, investigate fraud or malpractice cases, and take appropriate disciplinary actions against healthcare providers who violate regulations.
5. Policy Development: Healthcare regulatory agencies also play a role in developing and implementing healthcare policies. They analyze data and research to make evidence-based decisions that improve public health outcomes and address emerging issues in the healthcare industry.
Overall, healthcare regulatory agencies work to safeguard public health by monitoring and enforcing regulations, ensuring healthcare providers deliver safe and high-quality care.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
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The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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It is essential that prescription errors be avoided to protect a patient’s health and finances. health and safety. safety and assets. safety and finances.
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An ear injury would be described as
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Answer:
an ear trauma or something
Explanation: