inferior rectal rise branch of ____a____ and innervates ____b_____

Answers

Answer 1

The inferior rectal nerve is a branch of (a) the pudendal nerve and innervates (b) the external *nal sphincter and the peria*nal skin.

The Inferior rectal nerves occasionally arisesdirectly from the sacral plexus; it crosses the ischiorectal fossa, with the inferior hemorrhoidal vessels, toward the an*l canal and the lower end of the rectum, and is distributed to the Sphincter ani externus and to the integument around the *nus. Branches of this nerve communicate with the perineal branch of the posterior femoral cutaneous and with the posterior scrotal nerves at the forepart of the perineum.

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Related Questions

Dawn is 5 months pregnant. At this stage, her developing child is referred to as a/an.

Answers

Answer:

I believe it would be referred to as a fetus.

Please fill in the blank. Place your answer in the space provided.



Surgical puncture of a joint:

Arthr /o/ _____???_____

Answers

Surgical puncture of a joint to aspirate (suction) fluids from the synovial cavity is called Arthrocentesis

Answer:

Arthrocentesis

Explanation:

Arthrocentesis is a procedure where doctors use a needle to take out fluid in a joint.

Have a lovely rest of your day/night, and good luck with your assignments! ♡

write a sentence with the medical term
gastroenteritis,choledocholithiasis, cholecystectomy. i need only 2
sentences in each word.

Answers

1. Gastroenteritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the stomach and intestines, causing symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

2. Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct, which can lead to jaundice, abdominal discomfort, and potentially require surgical intervention called cholecystectomy for removal of the gallbladder.

1. Gastroenteritis is a medical term used to describe the inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, including the stomach and intestines. It is typically caused by viral or bacterial infections and can result in symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and sometimes fever. Gastroenteritis is commonly known as the stomach flu or stomach bug.

2. Choledocholithiasis is a condition where gallstones form and obstruct the common bile duct, which carries bile from the liver to the small intestine. Gallstones are hardened deposits that can develop in the gallbladder and migrate into the bile duct. When the common bile duct is blocked, it can cause symptoms such as jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes), abdominal pain, fever, and digestive problems. Treatment for choledocholithiasis often involves a procedure called endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) to remove or break down the stones, and in some cases, surgical removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy) may be necessary to prevent further complications.

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what is medicine 100 points

Answers

Answer:

Medicine is something you eat or prescribe to a patient used for treatment or prevention of a disease.

--

Medicine is  a compound or preparation used for the treatment or prevention of disease, especially a drug or drugs taken by mouth.

identify one bidirectional relationship

Answers

A bidirectional relationship is valid in both directions. Intersects is an example of a bidirectional relationship.

What disease processes contribute to chronic heart failure? Select all that apply.
A) Tachydysrhythmias
B) Valvular disease
C) Pancreatic disease
D) Renal failure
E) Pulmonary insufficiency

Answers

The disease processes that contribute to chronic heart failure include: A) Tachydysrhythmias

B) Valvular disease

D) Renal failure

E) Pulmonary insufficiency

Tachydysrhythmias, valvular disease, renal failure, and pulmonary insufficiency can all contribute to the development and progression of chronic heart failure. Tachydysrhythmias, or abnormal fast heart rhythms, can strain the heart and impair its ability to pump effectively. Valvular disease, such as mitral regurgitation or aortic stenosis, can cause valve dysfunction leading to volume overload or impaired cardiac output. Renal failure can result in fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can affect heart function. Pulmonary insufficiency, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), can lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, affecting the heart's ability to pump blood effectively.

C) Pancreatic disease is not directly associated with chronic heart failure and is not considered a contributing factor in its development.

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4 characteristics of bone as q connective tissue​

Answers

Answer:

Bone as connective tissue=mineral storage, protecting vital organs, providing internal support, attachment sites for tendons and muscles.

Answer:

Bone is a mineralized connective tissue that exhibits four types of cells: osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteocytes, and osteoclasts [1, 2]. Bone exerts important functions in the body, such as locomotion, support and protection of soft tissues, calcium and phosphate storage, and harboring of bone marrow

A hospital receives news that a wildfire has injured many victims, who are being transported to the hospital right away. What types of injuries should hospital workers anticipate? Select all that apply. electrical burns physical trauma infectious disease smoke inhalation

Answers

Answer:

the people that are being transported right away are the first ones to be reported. smoke inhalation infectious disease and physical trauma

Explanation:

Answer:

physical trauma

smoke inhalation

The word stem -meter means instrument used to

The word stem electr(o) means

The word stem -meter means instrument used to The word stem electr(o) means

Answers

Electric tides like electric electrons like lightning

Answer:  

Measure

Electricity

light

radiant energy

sound

Explanation:

The word stem -meter means instrument used to The word stem electr(o) means

An 8 kg child is prescribed azithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia. The prescription is for 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/dose once daily on days 2-5. Azithromycin is available as a 100 mg/5mL suspension. How many mLs will be required to complete the course?

Answers

The weight of the child is 8 kg, and the prescribed dosage of azithromycin is 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/day once daily on days 2-5. The total dose for day 1 would be:10 mg/kg × 8 kg = 80 mg. The dose for days 2-5 would be:5 mg/kg/day × 8 kg = 40 mg/day.

Therefore, the total dose for days 2-5 would be:40 mg/day × 4 days = 160 mg. The overall dose is:80 mg + 160 mg = 240 mg . One milliliter of the azithromycin suspension contains 100 mg of the drug. Therefore, to calculate how many mLs will be required to complete the course, divide the total dose by the concentration of the suspension:240 mg/100 mg per 5mL = 4.8 mL. The amount of Azithromycin suspension that will be required to complete the course is 4.8 mL.

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Dr. Clarkson is treating a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). He learns that the client's parents divorced and she has never felt loved because her father left the family. By looking for the issues that led to the development of her OCD, Dr. Clarkson is
- making a prognosis.
- attempting to determine etiology.
- making a diagnosis.
- attempting to assess function.

Answers

By looking for the issues that led to the development of the client's OCD, Dr. Clarkson is attempting to determine the etiology of the disorder.

Etiology refers to the cause or origin of a disorder or illness. Understanding the underlying causes of OCD is important for developing an effective treatment plan. In this case, the client's experiences with her parents' divorce and feelings of being unloved may have contributed to the development of her OCD. By identifying these factors, Dr. Clarkson can better understand the client's unique situation and tailor her treatment accordingly. It's worth noting that making a diagnosis is a separate step in the process and involves identifying the specific disorder or condition that the client is experiencing. However, understanding the etiology of the disorder is an important part of the diagnostic process.

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1. Describe the major bones and bony landmarks of the human skeleton.

Answers

Answer:

An example of a bony landmark is the head of the humerus and femur. These heads make up ball and socket joints of the shoulder and hip Hard surface forms are also known as bony landmarks—parts of bones (ridges, bumps, depressions) that are positioned close to the skin, creating visual landmarks on the surface form

Explanation:yw

Which of the following is a geologic emergency? A. Tornado B. Earthquake C. Heat wave D. Active Shooter

Answers

Answer:

B. Earthquake

Explanation:

Some other examples of Geological emergencies are volcanic eruptions, natural explosions, avalanches, and landslides.

I hope this helps!! :D

Is a geologic emergency a Earthquake because  according to scientists, in the near future, could cause an earthquake.

What is earthquakes?

Earthquake is a sudden and sudden movement of land resulting from a fault. Therefore, the rupture of a rock is the mechanism by which the earthquake is produced.

Earthquakes are a geological emergency because it is through geologists that we can try to avoid catastrophes for people.

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A 1984 study by ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a ______ treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.

Answers

A 1984 study by Ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a therapeutics treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.

Therapeutics is the practice of treating and caring for a patient with the goal of preventing and treating illness or reducing pain or harm.

A patient may get treatments and therapies with the aim of curing an illness or condition. This is referred to as curative or therapeutic care. The phrases are also applied to therapies that, in the absence of a cure, slow the course of the disease.

Therapeutics, when used broadly, refers to providing the patient with all of their needs, including both illness prevention and problem-specific management.

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Describe why you should use professional language and photos on your LinkedIn profile

Answers

This builds an illusion (or just builds) credibility. People are more likely to trust and work with more professional looking people. If one were to wear a t-shirt that said "SHREK" on it, and use language like they were writing a text message, it looks as if that person was like a child, had no work ethic, and little experience and credibility. However, if one dresses and speaks more professionally, it seems that they will have a better work ethic, and are more experienced and therefore better for the job.  

Answer:

When utilizing LinkedIn it is vital that professional language and imagery are used because you are marketing yourself to potential employers. The content added to your profile should be equal to that in which you would put on a resume or what you would talk about in an interview.

which broad muscle extends from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin and is responsible for lowering the lower jaw and li

Answers

Answer:

Platysma

Broad muscle extending from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin; responsible for lowering the lower jaw and lip.

Platysma I may be wrong but I think this is right

The histograms show triglyceride levels for 74 men and 100 women. Triglycerides are a form of fat found in blood. Complete parts (a) and (b) below. a. Compare the distribution of triglyceride levels for men and women. (Be sure to compare the shapes, the centers, and the spreads.) b. Triglyceride levels under 150 are good; levels above 500 are very high and may be a health concern. Which group seems to have better triglyceride levels

Answers

Based on the distribution given by the histogram, the distribution of triglyceride for both men and women are skewed to right and the Women distribution seems to have a better triglyceride level.

The distribution displayed by the histogram have their tails to the right and their peaks to the left of the distribution. Hence, they are both right skewed with the male distribution having a wider spread.

The triglyceride level in Women is better as only about 13 observations above 150 mg/dL. This observations also fall below 500 mg/dL.

The Men's distribution are more spread out, with about 25 observations having above 150mg/dL and 1 observation having about 750mg/dL triglyceride level.

Therefore, Women's distribution has a better triglyceride level.

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The histograms show triglyceride levels for 74 men and 100 women. Triglycerides are a form of fat found

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has a history of atherosclerosis and notes elevated cholesterol levels which of the following statements by the client indicates the nurse should plan follow-up teaching on a low cholesterol diet? OA. "Iflavor my meat with lemon juice." OB. "I eat two eggs and bacon for breakfast each morning" OC. "I cook my food with canola oil." OD. "I take omega 3 supplements daily

Answers

The nurse should plan follow-up teaching on a low cholesterol diet when the client says, "I eat two eggs and bacon for breakfast each morning." This is because eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, and consuming them regularly can contribute to elevated cholesterol levels in the body. The other statements suggest that the client is taking steps to reduce their cholesterol intake, such as using lemon juice to flavor meat instead of salt, cooking with canola oil instead of butter, and taking omega 3 supplements.

2,620 men were enrolled in the study of prostate cancer and 930 of those had confirmed by biopsy prostate cancer. The sensitivity of the Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) test was 86% and the specificity was 33%. Calculate positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of the PSA test given this information and interpret (explain) the results. (Show your calculations to get credit)

Answers

Answer:

81%

Explanation:

0.86 · 930 = 799.8 ⇒ 800 men

Other 130 men have negative PSA test

2620 - 930 = 1690 ⇒ 1690 without cancer

0.33 · 1690 = 557.8 ⇒ 558 men no cancer + negetive PSA tests

1690 - 558 = 1132

*view attachment below*

Positive perdictive value = 800/1932 = 0.42 = 42%

Negative predictive value = 558/688 = 0.81 = 81%.

The probability of not having prostate cancer among men with a negative PSA test is 81%

Sorry if it's very unclear, Good luck <3

2,620 men were enrolled in the study of prostate cancer and 930 of those had confirmed by biopsy prostate

whats a class b misdemeaner

Answers

Answer:Misdemeanors in New York are divided into 3 classes: Class A misdemeanors, Class B misdemeanors, and unclassified misdemeanors.

ms. van higgins confided in her best friend that she'd had a lid lift. the medical term for this procedure i

Answers

Answer:

ptosis repair and blepharoplasty

The medical term for the procedure that Ms. Van Higgins had is called a blepharoplasty.

A blepharoplasty, commonly referred to as a lid lift, is a surgical procedure that removes excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is often performed for cosmetic reasons to improve the appearance of the eyes and to reduce the signs of aging.

During the procedure, the surgeon will make incisions along the natural creases of the eyelids and remove any excess skin and fat. They may also tighten the muscles and tissues around the eyes to provide a more youthful appearance.

After the procedure, patients can expect some swelling and bruising, which typically resolves within a few weeks. It's important to follow the surgeon's post-operative instructions carefully to ensure proper healing.

So, to sum up, the medical term for the procedure that Ms. Van Higgins had is called a blepharoplasty, which is a surgical procedure to remove excess skin and fat from the eyelids for cosmetic reasons.

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List three reasons a TST would be contraindicated in a patient.

Answers

A TST (Tuberculin Skin Test) is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of tuberculosis (TB) infection. However, there are some situations where a TST would be contraindicated or not recommended. Here are three reasons why a TST may not be appropriate for a patient:

1. Prior positive TST: If a patient has already had a positive TST result in the past, then they are considered to have a latent TB infection and do not need another TST. Instead, a different test such as interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) may be used to monitor the patient's TB infection status.

2. Recent vaccination: If a patient has received a bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine within the past 4-6 weeks, then the vaccine may cause a false-positive TST result. Therefore, it is recommended to wait at least 4-6 weeks after BCG vaccination before administering a TST.

3. Immunosuppression: If a patient is immunocompromised due to a medical condition or medication use, then the TST may not be reliable in detecting TB infection. In such cases, an IGRA test may be more appropriate, or other diagnostic tests may be necessary to evaluate the patient's TB infection status.

It is important to note that the decision to perform a TST or any diagnostic test is based on the patient's individual medical history and risk factors. Before administering any diagnostic test, healthcare providers should review the patient's medical history and assess any contraindications or potential risks associated with the test.

Where can you find information on potentially dangerous chemicals used in specific workspaces?

Answers

Answer:The NIOSH Pocket Guide to Chemical Hazards contains information on several hundred chemicals commonly found in the workplace; The Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA's) Toxic Substance Control Act (TSCA) Chemical Substances Inventory lists information on more than 62,000 chemicals or chemical substances

Explanation:

Which of the following is not protected health information (PHI) subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule?A. E-mail address.
B. Telephone and Fax numbers.
C. Zodiac signs.
D. Name.
E. Social Security Number (SSN).

Answers

i feel like the answer is c. zodiac signs

Zodiac signs is not protected health information (PHI) subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

What is HIPAA privacy rule?

The Privacy Rule generally mandates that HIPAA covered entities (health plans and the majority of health care providers) give patients access to the protected health information (PHI) about them that is kept by or for the covered entity in one or more "designated record sets" upon request.

This includes the right to access the PHI and request a copy, as well as the right to request that the covered entity send a copy of the PHI to a particular person or organization of the individual's choosing.

Regardless of the date the information was created, individuals have the right to access this PHI for as long as it is kept by a covered entity or a business partner acting on the behalf of a covered entity.

Therefore, Zodiac signs is not protected health information (PHI) subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

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When is periodontal disease reversible?

Answers

Answer:

it's reversible

it is related to teeth

Yes it is reversible

If penalties are imposed only on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will ________ and the equilibrium quantity will ________.

Answers

If penalties are imposed only on the buyers of illegal drugs, the equilibrium price of illegal drugs will _fall__ and the equilibrium quantity will ___decrease__.

a client is to be discharged from an acute care facility after treatment for pneumonia. the nurse notes that the client's lungs are clear and denies shortness of breath. the nurse's actions reflect which step of the nursing process?

Answers

The nurse's actions in assessing the client's clear lungs and absence of shortness of breath after treatment for pneumonia reflect the evaluation step of the nursing process.

The nursing process consists of five steps: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. In this scenario, the nurse is observing and assessing the client's lungs, noting that they are clear and the client denies shortness of breath. This corresponds to the evaluation step of the nursing process.

Evaluation involves the nurse's assessment of the client's response to interventions and the progress made towards achieving desired outcomes. In this case, the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment for pneumonia by assessing the client's lung sounds and respiratory status. Clear lungs and the absence of shortness of breath indicate positive outcomes and suggest that the treatment has been successful.

The evaluation step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of nursing interventions and identifying any necessary adjustments or further actions needed to promote the client's health and well-being. It allows the nurse to make informed decisions about the client's care and provide appropriate discharge instructions or recommendations.

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: Norma Washington, DOB 8/1/1944, an established patient of Dr. Martin, has called to report her blood pressure readings that she has been taking at home. Dr. Martin had made a recent change in her medication and wanted her to monitor her BP at home for 3 days and call in with the results. She has taken her blood pressure in the morning and in the evening for the past 3 days, with the following results: • Day 1: 144/92 in the am, 156/94 in the pm • Day 2: 136/84 in the am, 142/86 in the pm • Day 3: 132/80 in the am, 138/82 in the pm

Answers

In the medical record, note the name of the patient, the name of the assisting doctor, and what was the claims of the patient.

How to take accurate messages for medical information?

Then write what are the reasons for which she called, then record her findings in the medical record chart.

That is what the task is all about.

You need to write.

Name of the patient:- Norma Washington.

DOB:-8/1/1944.

Name of the doctor:- Dr. Martin.

Reason for call:- To inform the BP records she has been measuring for the last 3 days as said by the doctor.

BP records:- Write the records that she told you.

Therefore, that finishes the task.

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Coumarin toxicity, found when animals ingest rat poisoning, is treated with.
a.heparin.
b.vitamin K1.
c.EDTA.
d.silver nitrate sticks.

Answers

Coumarin toxicity, found when animals ingest rat poisoning, is treated with b. vitamin K1.

Coumarin is a type of anticoagulant, which means that it prevents the blood from clotting. When animals ingest rat poisoning, they can develop coumarin toxicity, which can lead to excessive bleeding and hemorrhaging.

The most effective treatment for coumarin toxicity is vitamin K1, which helps to promote the clotting of blood and prevent excessive bleeding. Heparin, EDTA, and silver nitrate sticks are not effective treatments for coumarin toxicity. In summary, the correct answer is b. vitamin K1.

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Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.

Answers

Answer:

Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.

Explanation:

The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:

the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouth

The different structures of the oral cavity include:

Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.

A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.

Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.

Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.

On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.

The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:

removable prosthodontic                   fixed prosthesis case

It can be easily removed by            It requires a dental practitioner to

from the mouth when required        remove it.

Can lead to further jaw bone          It makes the jaw bone firm and intact

deterioration

Its cost is usually affordable but,   The cost is higher and it is a longtime

it has limited longetivity                 value.

From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.

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Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from
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