Infants diagnosed with an obstructive septal deviation after nasal trauma require urgent evaluation because this condition can lead to respiratory distress and obstructive sleep apnea.
First, an obstructive septal deviation can cause difficulty breathing, which can be especially dangerous for infants, as they primarily breathe through their nose. Secondly, such a deviation can lead to chronic sinus infections and other complications, which can affect the overall health and development of the infant.
Nasal trauma can cause swelling and inflammation, which can exacerbate the obstruction. If left untreated, this condition can lead to serious health complications, including developmental delays and growth problems. Therefore, it is important for infants with obstructive septal deviation to receive prompt evaluation and treatment to ensure proper respiratory function and overall health.
Additionally, early evaluation and treatment can prevent long-term complications and provide a better prognosis for the child. In summary, urgent evaluation of infants with obstructive septal deviation after nasal trauma is essential to ensure their safety and well-being.
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A client has just voided 50 mL, yet reports that his bladder still feels full. The nurses's next actions should include which of the following? Select all that apply:a) Palpating the bladder heightb) Obtaining a clean catch urine specimenc) performing a bladder scand) Asking the PT about recent voiding historye) Inserting a straight catheter to measure residual urine.
A client has just voided 50 mL, yet reports that his bladder still feels full. The nurse's next actions should include performing a bladder scan and asking the PT about the recent voiding history.
What should be the next action of the nurse?
The nurse's next actions should include a) Palpating the bladder height, c) Performing a bladder scan, and d) Asking the patient about recent voiding history. These steps will help the nurse assess the client's bladder condition and determine the appropriate course of action. Palpating the bladder height may not be accurate in assessing residual urine and obtaining a clean catch urine specimen is not necessary in this situation. Inserting a straight catheter should not be the first line of action but can be considered if the bladder scan shows a significant amount of residual urine.
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the four steps for testing a change are:
The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.
An improvement project includes four phases: planning, preparation, execution, and closeout. In order to improve teamwork and help organizations run more efficiently, researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published "Tuckman's Stages" in 1965.It discussed the four developmental phases that all teams experience throughout time: training, forming, norming, and performing. Write out a work plan, share anecdotes to illustrate why the QI project is personally relevant to people, and create a team roster so everyone is aware of who is on the team and how to contact one another.
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If a patient presents with an injury which includes excessive bleeding, what is the recommended method of intervention.
Always call triple zero (000) in an emergency. First aid for severe external bleeding includes direct pressure on the wound maintained by using pads and bandages, and raising the injured area above the level of the heart if possible.
In an emergency, dial 000 at all times. In order to stop significant external bleeding, the damaged region should be kept directly under pressure with pads and bandages, and if at all possible, elevated above the level of the heart.
What is excessive bleeding?Start by directly pressing a clean, sterile dressing over the cut to reduce the blood flow and encourage coagulation. Use any clean fabric, such as a towel, handkerchief, or shirt, in the absence of a sterile dressing. Take care not to use your hands.
Hold pressure on the wound for at least five minutes while being steady, firm, and uninterrupted. You can exert consistent pressure using a towel or gauze. Most bleeding is stopped by physical pressure.
Therefore, in an emergency, dial 000 at all times. In order to stop significant external bleeding.
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Transdermal medications a. are given systemically and have a systemic effect. b. are given topically and have a systemic effect. c. are given topically and have a local effect. d. are given systemically but have a local effect.
Answer: Transdermal medications are given topically and have a systemic effect. The correct option is B.
Explanation:
In the administration of drug to patients, there are different routes that can be used by the health care provider. These include:
--> Through injection: intramuscular, intravenous, and subcutaneous routes
--> Through gastrointestinal tract: for example,Sublingual (under the tongue), Rectal (in the rectum)
--> Through the route of administration that dictates dosage form: for example, inhalation and TRANSDERMAL route.
TRANSDERMAL medication is the route of drug administration whereby drugs are delivered through the skin ( topically) in the form of patches. They provide a consistent delivery of small amounts of a drug into the blood stream over a long period of time. They are designed to exert their effects on deeper or more distant tissues. Therefore the transdermal medication have a systemic effects when applied topically.
Transdermal medications are given topically and have a systemic effect.
Transdermal medications are absorbed by the skin before they go into the bloodstream of the person. Transdermal simply means applying drug or medicine through the skin. An advantage of transdermal medications is that it's easy to apply. Transdermal drugs are used in the management and the treatment of various conditions, like pain, hypertension, migraines, etc. Common examples of drugs that are given through transdermal patches include opioid medications, nicotine, ensam, fentanyl etc. It should also be noted that such drugs have a systemic effect on the body of the patient.In conclusion, the correct option is B.
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Brent has been in a coma for three weeks. A doctor wanted to try a new drug to try and bring him out of the coma.
When Brent was given the drugs, he woke up front his coma. Which best describes what happened to Brent?
He experienced a positive incident.
He experienced a negative incident.
He experienced a positive accident.
He experienced a negative accident.
i have a couple questions about my hamster the first quetion is do they like being held next is how long untill they get used to u and my hamster dosnt want to go on the wheel any tips
Thank you for helping me : )
Blood plasma contains water mixed with proteins. Therefore, it is considered a
A. colloid.
B. suspension.
C. solution.
Blood plasma contains water mixed with proteins. Therefore, it is considered as colloid.
What do you mean by colloid?A colloid is a mixture in which one substance consisting of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles is suspended throughout another substance. Some definitions specify that the particles must be dispersed in a liquid, while others extend the definition to include substances like aerosols and gels.
A colloid is a mixture is two or more substances mixed together but not chemically combined ( they can be separated ). They are a special type of mixture where tiny particles of one substance are scattered through another substance.
A colloid is a kind of solution in which the size of the solute particles is intermediate between those in true solution and those in suspension. Examples of colloids are mayonnaise, milk, butter, gelatin, and jelly.
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Using so-called reasons (usually not true) to encourage you to try something. Examples: “It won’t hurt you.” “Your parents will never find out.” “You'll have a lot more fun.”
Peer Pressure is used in situations where egos and esteem rise off of the wrong impressions.
What is peer pressure?Active peer pressure occurs when your friends explicitly persuade you to do something.
Examples are offering and forcing you to drink then criticizing for refusing it. Forcing you to attend a party even your parents do not agree.
On the other hand, passive peer pressure happens within a person's want to fit in to his/her colleagues. It is further classified into social modelling and perception.
Example for social modeling is when you see all your friends are drinking then you just drink also because you do not want to be left out. Perception, on the other hand, is when you perceive that your peers are happy drinking then you drink as well because you believe that you also will be happy doing this.
Thus, this could be the answer
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8. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse, family members
account for a small percentage of abuse against elders.
_True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A drug is prescribed to prevent a disease or condition, as with immunizations or birth control drugs, in which of the following types of drug
therapies?
Helena is creating a Python program to teach a younger sibling how to tell time. Helena begins by writing a very general pseudocode and then adds more elements to it. She reviews it and changes a few aspects. Which term describes the process that is being used?
The process being used in this scenario is iterative development, where Helena starts with general pseudocode and progressively adds more elements while reviewing and making changes.
The process described here is iterative development. Iterative development is an approach in software development where a program is built incrementally through repeated cycles of planning, designing, implementing, and reviewing. In this case, Helena starts with a general pseudocode, which serves as a rough outline of the program's functionality.
She then adds more elements to it, possibly refining the logic or introducing new features. After each addition or modification, Helena reviews the code and makes necessary changes based on her evaluation. This iterative process allows her to refine and improve the program gradually, ensuring that each step builds upon the previous one.
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The Whole Story
What does it mean to say that the professional coding specialist’s job is to tell the whole story about the encounter between the health care provider and the patient? How does a professional coding specialist tell this story, answering the question of why the services were provided and demonstrating their medical necessity?
This involves understanding medical terminology and coding systems and using this knowledge to document the medical necessity of the services provided.
What is Coding?
Coding, in the context of healthcare, refers to the process of translating medical procedures and services into a standardized format using specific codes. These codes are used for various purposes, including billing, reimbursement, and healthcare analytics.
There are different coding systems used in healthcare, such as International Classification of Diseases (ICD), Current Procedural Terminology (CPT), and Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS). Each of these systems has its own set of codes and guidelines for assigning them.
As a professional coding specialist, it is their responsibility to translate the medical procedures and services provided to a patient into codes that can be understood by insurance companies and government agencies. They do this by reviewing the patient's medical records and identifying the diagnoses, procedures, and services provided during the encounter.
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first recognition of fetal movements by the mother is called
The first recognition of fetal movements by the mother is called "quickening."
Quickening refers to the first time a pregnant woman feels movements of her fetus in her womb. It is often described as a fluttering sensation, similar to the feeling of butterflies in the stomach or gentle tapping.
Quickening usually occurs between 18 and 25 weeks of pregnancy, although it can vary from woman to woman and pregnancy to pregnancy.
During the early stages of pregnancy, fetal movements may go unnoticed or be mistaken for other bodily sensations.
However, as the fetus grows and develops, the movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the mother.
Quickening is an important milestone in pregnancy and is often a source of joy and reassurance for expectant mothers, as it signifies the presence of a developing and active baby.
The first recognition of fetal movements by the mother is called quickening. It is an exciting moment for pregnant women and represents an important milestone in the progression of their pregnancy.
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The nurse understands that administering a hypertonic solution to a patient will shift water from the _____ to the _____ space.
Answer:
The answer is Intracellular; extracellular
Explanation:
The nurse understands that administering a hypertonic solution to a patient will shift water from the Intracellular to the extracellular space.
Chris is being seen for lower back pain that radiates into his left leg. He notes the pain worsens with standing and bending over, and the pain is better with laying down and applying heat. He describes the pain as a "hot poker" in his back. This an example of
This is an example of A. verbal information. B. visual information. C. objective information. D. subjective information.
Explanation: This is an example of: subjective information: Chris is being seen for lower back pain that radiates into his left leg. He notes the pain worsens with standing and bending over, and the pain is better with laying down and applying heat. [ He describes the pain as a "hot poker" in his back. ]
Give an example of an ethical dilemma in healthcare? What would you do?
Answer:
An example of an ethical dilemma is telling the truth to a patient vs. being deceptive.
How you would deal with ethical dilemma:
1. Identify the ethical issues.
2. Identify alternative courses of action.
3. Using ethical reasoning to decide on a course of action.
Explanation:
Drivers under the influence of alcohol and other drugs tend to
Answer:
put themselves and others at risk
Explanation:
Patient safety is of utmost importance. Put yourself in this scenario. While you are completing an admission, you notice a number of unusual bruises and several abrasions on the patient. After reviewing the module resources, consider how you would approach the topic with the patient. In your initial discussion address:
Describe how the state of Florida's abuse-reporting requirements aligns or differ.
Patient safety is indeed of utmost importance, and it is crucial to address any concerns regarding unusual bruises and abrasions on a patient during an admission. When approaching this topic with the patient, it is important to be empathetic, respectful, and supportive.
In the state of Florida, abuse-reporting requirements align with the duty to report any suspected abuse or neglect of vulnerable adults or children. Healthcare professionals are mandated reporters and must report any signs or suspicions of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities, such as the Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) or the Adult Protective Services (APS). Failure to report can result in legal consequences.
When discussing the bruises and abrasions with the patient, it is important to approach the conversation with care and sensitivity. Begin by expressing concern for their well-being and explaining the reason for the discussion, emphasizing that it is for their safety and welfare. Reassure the patient that you are there to support them and that you have a duty to report any concerns.
Avoid making assumptions or accusations during the conversation. Instead, ask open-ended questions to gather more information and allow the patient to share their perspective. Listen attentively and validate their feelings and experiences.
It is essential to document the conversation, including the patient's responses and any additional observations, following the facility's policies and procedures. Report your concerns promptly and accurately to the appropriate authorities as required by the state of Florida.
Remember, maintaining patient safety is paramount, and addressing suspected abuse or neglect is an important responsibility of healthcare professionals.
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the six rights oc medication administration
Answer:
Right Patient
Right Medication
Right Dose
Right Time
Right Route
Right Documentation
Explanation:
See attached.
Why would a patient with myasthenia gravis have improvement of their symptoms when taking an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor like mestinon?.
Some drugs that are used to treat myasthenia gravis act on acetylcholinesterase to stop the breakdown of acetylcholine. These acetylcholinesterase inhibitors increase the amount of acetylcholine available and so help muscle activation and contraction
What is myasthenia gravis ?When you have myasthenia gravis, your immune system generates antibodies that block or damage many of the acetylcholine receptor sites in your muscles. Weakness results from your muscles receiving fewer nerve messages because there are fewer receptor sites accessible.
Incorrect nerve impulse transmission to muscles is the root cause of myasthenia gravis. It takes place when the neuromuscular junction the location where nerve cells link with the muscles they control is compromised, preventing proper communication between the nerve and muscle.Learn more about Myasthenia gravis here:
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a patient is diagnosed with a malignant gastric tumor in the distal portion of the stomach. which surgical intervention would the nurse expect this patient will be offered?
Gastric resection remains the preferred surgical treatment option for many diseases of the stomach, including malignancy, peptic ulcer disease, and bariatric procedures.
Gastric cancer is a condition in which malignant (cancer) cells grow in the stomach lining. The chance of acquiring gastric cancer can be influenced by age, food, and stomach condition. Indigestion and stomach discomfort or pain are symptoms of gastric cancer.
Adenocarcinomas. The majority of stomach malignancies (90–95%) are adenocarcinomas. These malignancies arise from gland cells in the stomach's innermost lining (the mucosa). When you are diagnosed with stomach cancer (or gastric cancer), it is nearly invariably an adenocarcinoma.
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In what respects does epidemiology differ from clinical medicine?
Answer:
Epidemiology and clinical medicine are both fields of study related to health and disease, but they differ in several key respects:
Scope and Population-level Focus: Epidemiology is the study of health and disease patterns in populations, typically at the community, regional, national, or global level. It focuses on understanding the distribution, determinants, and patterns of health and disease in populations, including factors such as risk factors, prevalence, incidence, and outcomes. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and management of individual patients at the level of the individual or small groups of patients.
Study Design and Methods: Epidemiology typically employs observational study designs, such as cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies, to investigate the relationships between exposures (such as risk factors) and health outcomes in populations. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, often involves randomized controlled trials (RCTs), systematic reviews, and other experimental designs to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions or treatments in individual patients.
Emphasis on Population Health and Prevention: Epidemiology places a strong emphasis on population health and disease prevention. Epidemiologists study patterns of disease occurrence and work to identify and understand risk factors and determinants of health in populations, with the goal of informing public health policies and interventions to prevent disease and promote health at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on diagnosing, treating, and managing diseases in individual patients, with the goal of improving the health outcomes of individual patients.
Role in Public Health and Policy: Epidemiology plays a critical role in public health practice, as it provides evidence for the development of public health policies and interventions to improve population health. Epidemiologists work closely with public health agencies and policymakers to identify and mitigate health risks, monitor disease trends, and develop strategies for disease prevention and control. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, is primarily concerned with providing individual patient care and is typically not directly involved in the development of public health policies.
Data and Analysis: Epidemiology often involves the analysis of large datasets, such as population-based surveys, health records, and other epidemiological databases, to identify patterns and trends in health and disease at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, primarily relies on individual patient data, including medical history, physical examinations, and laboratory tests, to diagnose and treat diseases in individual patients.
Overall, while both epidemiology and clinical medicine are important fields of study related to health and disease, they differ in their scope, study designs, methods, emphasis on population health, role in public health and policy, and data analysis approaches. Understanding these differences is crucial for accurately interpreting and applying findings from both fields in healthcare practice and public health interventions.
Explanation:
What is the purpose of Safety Reminder Devices (Restraints) and list steps the nurse must take prior to using them and during the use of them?
Safety reminder device (SRD) is a device that is used to block the movement of one or many parts of the patient's body such as legs and hands.
What are the functions of safety reminder devices?A safety reminder device is defined as any of the numerous devices you for mobilize the patient or part of the patient's body such as arms or hands.
The use of SRDs can also result in increased restlessness, disorientation, agitation, anxiety, and a feeling of powerlessness. Documentation about the need for the SRDs, the type of device used, and the patient response is crucial.
The use of SRDs can also result in increased restlessness, disorientation, agitation, anxiety, and a feeling of powerlessness. Documentation about the need for the SRDs, the type of device used, and the patient response is crucial.
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the nurse is teaching a patient with gerd about substances to avoid. which items should the nurse include in the teaching
The nurse should instruct the patient with GERD to avoid the following substances: caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, fatty foods, spicy foods, and acidic foods (such as tomatoes and citrus fruits).
GERD, or gastroesophageal reflux disease, occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing irritation and discomfort. Certain substances can worsen GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) or increasing stomach acid production.
- Caffeine and chocolate can both relax the LES, making it easier for stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.
- Alcohol can also relax the LES and irritate the esophageal lining.
- Fatty foods can slow down stomach emptying, increasing the risk of acid reflux.
- Spicy foods can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to GERD symptoms.
- Acidic foods, like tomatoes and citrus fruits, can increase the acidity of stomach contents and exacerbate GERD symptoms.
By avoiding these substances, a patient with GERD can reduce the risk of triggering or worsening their symptoms. The nurse should emphasize the importance of lifestyle modifications in managing GERD, alongside any prescribed medications.
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The physician has ordered Ceclor (cefaclor) 250 mg. On hand you have liquid that contains 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL will you give?
Answer:
5 mL=250 mL
Explanation: Is equal to250 mL
Is marijuana bad for the skeletal system and why
Answer:
People who regularly smoke large amounts of marijuana may be more susceptible to bone fractures than people who don't use the drug,
Explanation:
what is 200000+20000 times 200000
Answer:
4.4×10(9)
Explanation:
200000+20000=220000
220000X200000=4.4000000000 or in shorter terms4.4×109
An ER doctor is examining a burned patient and notices that the patient's burn has destroyed all three layers of skin.
What type of burn does the patient most likely have?
a sunburn
a first-degree burn
a second-degree burn
a third-degree burn
correct answer: third-degree burn. because only a third degree burn can destroy all three layers of skin.
Answer:
D. :)
Explanation:
ms. van higgins confided in her best friend that she'd had a lid lift. the medical term for this procedure i
Answer:
ptosis repair and blepharoplasty
The medical term for the procedure that Ms. Van Higgins had is called a blepharoplasty.
A blepharoplasty, commonly referred to as a lid lift, is a surgical procedure that removes excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is often performed for cosmetic reasons to improve the appearance of the eyes and to reduce the signs of aging.
During the procedure, the surgeon will make incisions along the natural creases of the eyelids and remove any excess skin and fat. They may also tighten the muscles and tissues around the eyes to provide a more youthful appearance.
After the procedure, patients can expect some swelling and bruising, which typically resolves within a few weeks. It's important to follow the surgeon's post-operative instructions carefully to ensure proper healing.
So, to sum up, the medical term for the procedure that Ms. Van Higgins had is called a blepharoplasty, which is a surgical procedure to remove excess skin and fat from the eyelids for cosmetic reasons.
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a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart
Answer:
C. respiratory, asthma
Explanation:
Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.
Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.