The nutrients most likely to cause toxicity if consumed in excessive amounts include vitamin A and vitamin D.
Both of these vitamins are fat-soluble, which means that they can accumulate in the body's fatty tissues and potentially reach toxic levels if consumed in excessive amounts. It is important to maintain a balanced intake of all vitamins and nutrients to ensure overall health and wellbeing.
Vitamin D toxicity is a buildup of calcium in your blood (hypercalcemia), which can cause nausea and vomiting, weakness, and frequent urination. Vitamin D toxicity might progress to bone pain and kidney problems, such as the formation of calcium stones.
Consuming too much vitamin A causes hair loss, cracked lips, dry skin, weakened bones, headaches, elevations of blood calcium levels, and an uncommon disorder characterized by increased pressure within the skull called idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
To know more about vitamin A and vitamin D refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/15080220
#SPJ11
Nutrients that can cause toxicity if consumed in excessive amounts include vitamin A and vitamin D.
Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for growth, development, and maintaining good vision. It supports the immune system and helps cells communicate with one another. If consumed in excessive amounts, it can cause toxicity known as hypervitaminosis A, which can lead to headaches, dizziness, nausea, and liver damage. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for bone health, as well as the absorption of calcium. It also helps with the immune system and can even reduce the risk of certain types of cancer. However, if consumed in excess, it can cause hypervitaminosis D, which can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, and anorexia.
To learn more about vitamins click here https://brainly.com/question/28497791
#SPJ11
I want to become a doctor. What should I study first?
Answer:
science okayyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy
Answer:
you should start by watching videos on depending on what type of doctor you want to be right flash cards test your self and go from there
Explanation:
hope this helps
Why is the percentage of floating leaf disks a reasonable measure of photosynthetic activity?
The percentage of floating leaf disks is a reasonable measure of photosynthetic activity because floating leaves show that oxygen is still there.
The reason for this is that when a photosynthetic reaction takes place in a plant, carbon dioxide is taken up from the atmosphere and is converted into sugar through the process of photosynthesis. The sugar is then stored in the plant's cells to be used later. As a result of this reaction, oxygen is produced as a byproduct of photosynthesis. If a leaf is still floating, it means that there is still oxygen present, which indicates that photosynthesis is still taking place.
Therefore, measuring the percentage of floating leaf disks is a reliable measure of photosynthetic activity because it indicates how much oxygen is being produced during photosynthesis.
Learn more about photosynthetic at https://brainly.com/question/19160081
#SPJ11
An EKG technician notices an accelerated idioventricular rhythm on a tracing. Which of the following actions should the technician take next?
Answer:
Call for help and stay with the patient.
Explanation:
This is an emergent situation and the technician should call for help. The technician should stay with the patient and contact the emergency response team.
A participant missed several study visits and the research site staff becomes aware of a participant's death searching through public records. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Answer:
A. Report this as a Serious Adverse Event (SAE).
Explanation:
When undergoing a trial using a medical product, subjects might sometimes experience certain negative effects referred to as Serious Adverse Events. These effects might range from, hospitalization, death, congenital defects, disabilities, etc.
If the medical personnel suspects that the negative effect was as a result of the medical product used, it becomes necessary to report such as a Serious Adverse Event. So, in the scenario above where a participant suddenly misses participation and his death becomes known through public records, suspicions might be that the death was a serious adverse event caused by the study.
Does the tendency to seek stimulation through drug use confer any survival advantage?
The tendency to seek stimulation through drug use does not confer a direct survival advantage in the context of natural selection.
In fact, drug use can often have detrimental effects on an individual's health, well-being, and overall fitness.
It is important to distinguish between the short-term effects and the long-term consequences of drug use. Some drugs may provide temporary feelings of pleasure, euphoria, or relief from stress or pain.
In certain situations, this temporary stimulation or altered state of consciousness may seem appealing to individuals seeking escape or relief from their current circumstances.
However, when considering the long-term consequences, drug use typically carries significant risks and potential harms. Substance abuse can lead to addiction, impaired cognitive function, physical and mental health problems, damaged relationships, and reduced overall quality of life. These factors can have negative impacts on an individual's survival and reproductive success, as well as their ability to function effectively within their social and environmental contexts.
Moreover, drug-seeking behaviors often involve engaging in risky or dangerous activities, such as seeking out illicit substances, using unregulated drugs of unknown potency and purity, or engaging in behaviors that increase the risk of harm or injury. These activities can further diminish an individual's chances of survival and reproductive success.
It is worth noting that drug use and addiction are complex phenomena influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and socio-cultural factors. While there may be individual variations in susceptibility to addiction, it is generally understood that the motivations behind drug use are not driven by a direct survival advantage but rather by a complex interplay of factors, including personal circumstances, peer influence, emotional regulation, and genetics.
In summary, the tendency to seek stimulation through drug use does not confer a direct survival advantage. While drug use may temporarily provide stimulation or relief, the long-term consequences of substance abuse generally have negative impacts on an individual's overall well-being, health, and reproductive success.
know more about drug here
https://brainly.com/question/29767316#
#SPJ11
A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer?
6. If a patient is diagnosed with secondary hypertension, this means that the:
A. Condition has worsened from essential hypertension.
B. Patient has the most serious form of hypertension.
C. Hypertension is associated with another disease.
D. Patient has the most common form of hypertension.
Answer:
C. Hypertension is associated with another disease.
Explanation:
secondary hypertension = high blood pressure caused by another medical condition.
(hypertension = high blood pressure)
So, "secondary hypertension" indicates that the high blood pressure / hypertension is associated with another disease
Define response variable.
A. An innocuous medication, such as a sugar tablet, that looks, tastes, and smells like the experimental medication
B. The variable whose effect on the response variable is to be assessed by the experimenter
C. The effect of two factors (explanatory variables on the response variable) cannot be distinguished.
D. The quantitative or qualitative variable for which the experimenter wishes to determine how its value is affected by the explanatory variable
The quantitative or qualitative variable whose value the researcher wants to analyze in relation to the explanatory factor can be called the response variable.
In an experiment example, what does a responding variable mean?Imagine, for instance, that you were looking into how light impacts plant growth. You might alter the amount of light as the variable. The height of the plants would be the determining variable. In other words, as a researcher, you are altering the light and the plants are responding to it.
What distinguishes an explanatory variable from a response variable?response varying. In an experiment or study, the inquiry is centered on the response variable. A variable that explains a variable's variations is an explanatory variable. Anything that could impact the response variable is acceptable.
To learn more about response variable visit:
brainly.com/question/30087756
#SPJ4
A
The Petty Cash Fund has $0. 82. Your policy and procedure requires that there be a minimum of $100 in the
fund. After adding the $100, you reimburse several employees for out-of-pocket business expenses in the
following amounts: purchase of folders: $5. 16, payment of courier: $75. 00, and replenishment of soda machine:
$15. 0. After completing the Petty Cash Log, what is the ending balance?
Small Change Fund 0.82 plus 100.00 added equals 100.82. Ending balance: $5.16 + $15.00 + $75.00 = 95.16 - 100.82 - 95.6 = $5.22.
An account's net residual balance is its final balance. It is frequently measured during the final closing stage of the accounting cycle.
The term "closing balance" in banking refers to the amount in your account at the end of the day, the month, or the year. Both credit and debit sums are included in this.
If there are outstanding transactions that haven't been cleared by the bank yet but are included in an accounting closing statement but aren't included in a bank closure statement, a bank closing balance could be different from an accounting closing balance.
Therefore, the Petty Cash Fund is equal to 0.82 plus 100.00 added, or 100.82. Payment total: $5.16 + $15 + $75 = 95.16 + 100.82 + 95.6 = $5.22.
The complete question is:
The petty cash fund has $0.82. your policy and procedure requires that there be a minimum of $100 in the fund. After adding the $100, you reimburse several employees for out-of-pocket business expenses in the
following amounts: purchase of folders: $5.16, payment of courier: $75.00, and replenishment of soda machine: $15.00. After completing the petty cash log, what is the ending balance?
To know more about balance, click:
https://brainly.com/question/28699225
#SPJ4
1. What is the major source of energy for the brain?
2. What are the four major divisions of the brain?
3. What is the role of the corpus callosum?
4. In what cerebral lobe is the precentral gyrus? The postcentral
Nervous System: Spinal Cord & Peripher
Go Figure
Instruction: Answer the questions below.
1. Which of the following is correct according to Fig. 11.1 below
Subarachnoid space
Endal
Answer:
1) glucose
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood.
2) Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They Control
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...Temporal lobe.
3) The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres. ... Other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
4) The frontal lobe
The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood. Other part is discussed below:
What is brain hemisphere?Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
The frontal lobe The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
Therefore, The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand.
Learn more about mammalian brain on:
https://brainly.com/question/28482675
#SPJ2
culture change means basing care on each individuals needs
Knowledge and attitude of women towards pre menopausal syndrome
Answer:
Irritability and feelings of sadness are the most common emotional symptoms of menopause. Often, they can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as learning ways to relax and reduce stress. Here are some tips that may make it easier for you to handle your fluctuating emotions: Exercise and eat healthy.
Order received for MS 4 mg IV q4h prn. Within this order what appears on the joint commission official ‘Do Not Use ‘ list?
Answer:
MS
Explanation:MS can mean morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate
You find your 2 year old brother in the bathroom. An empty bottle of aspirin tablets is on the floor. His mouth is covered with a white powdery residue.
Answer:
Call 911
Explanation:
Answer:
Call a posion control center. If you have any, give him some actived charcoal
Explanation:
actived charcoal absorbes poison. it also may make him throw up, so be aware of that
a registered nurse is educating a nursing student about the relationship between nursing theory and nursing research. what information should the nurse provide? select all that apply.
As an RN educating a nursing student about the relationship between nursing theory and nursing research, the information that the nurse should provide are as follows:
What is Nursing theory?Nursing theory is a set of established ideas or concepts that provide the basis for the nursing profession's practice. Nursing theories are based on tested evidence and assist nurses in directing their care and improving outcomes.What is Nursing Research?The systematic investigation into a phenomenon that contributes to nursing knowledge and practice is known as nursing research. Nursing research aims to develop, test, and refine knowledge, skills, and values that are necessary to improve the quality of nursing care.What is the Relationship between Nursing Theory and Nursing Research?Nursing research is informed by nursing theory. Nursing theory provides the foundation for nursing research and influences the research question, design, and methods used. Nursing research, in turn, contributes to nursing theory by providing data that can be used to confirm, modify, or reject existing theories. In this way, nursing theory and research are interconnected, with theory informing research and research contributing to theory development.About NursingNursing is a profession focused on the care of individuals, families and communities in achieving, maintaining and recovering optimal health and functioning. Nursing is also the provision, at various levels of readiness, of services essential or useful for the promotion, maintenance and restoration of health and well-being or in the prevention of disease, for example for infants, the sick and injured, or otherwise for any reason unable to provide such services. it's for themselves.
Learn More About Nursing at https://brainly.com/question/14465443
#SPJ11
which patient would identify as having the lowest risk for sustaining a head, neck or spinal injury?
Answer:
A person who fell off of a 3-foot step stool
Explanation:
How many ml of an injection containing 40mg of triamcinilone per ml may be used in prepairing the following prescription.
Rx
Triamcinolone 0.051%
Ointment base ad 120g
Apply at affected area
To determine the amount of triamcinolone needed to prepare the ointment, we first need to calculate the total amount of triamcinolone needed for the entire prescription.
The prescription is for 120g of ointment, and the concentration of triamcinolone needed is 0.051%. This means that for every 100g of ointment, we need 0.051g (or 51mg) of triamcinolone.
To find out how much triamcinolone we need for the entire prescription, we can use the following calculation:
Total triamcinolone needed = 0.051g/100g x 120g = 0.0612g
Now that we know how much triamcinolone we need, we can use the concentration of the injection to determine how much we need to draw up.
The injection contains 40mg of triamcinolone per ml. Therefore, we can use the following calculation to determine how much of the injection we need:
Amount of injection needed = Total triamcinolone needed / concentration of injection
Amount of injection needed = 0.0612g / 40mg per ml = 1.53 ml
Therefore, we would need 1.53 ml of the injection containing 40mg of triamcinolone per ml to prepare the prescription for triamcinolone 0.051% ointment base ad 120g.
Muscarinic antagonists are most often contraindicated in glaucoma because these drugs can?
Muscarinic antagonists are contraindicated in glaucoma because these drugs can exacerbate the condition by increasing intraocular pressure (IOP).
Glaucoma is characterized by elevated IOP, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Muscarinic antagonists inhibit the actions of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, resulting in relaxation of the ciliary muscle and dilation of the pupil. While these effects can be beneficial in some conditions, they can be detrimental in glaucoma.
The ciliary muscle plays a crucial role in the regulation of IOP by controlling the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye. Contraction of the ciliary muscle facilitates the drainage of aqueous humor, reducing IOP. By blocking muscarinic receptors and inhibiting ciliary muscle contraction, muscarinic antagonists disrupt this natural mechanism of IOP control, leading to an increase in IOP.
The use of muscarinic antagonists in glaucoma can worsen the disease and potentially cause further damage to the optic nerve. It is essential for individuals with glaucoma to avoid these medications and instead follow a treatment plan that specifically targets the reduction of intraocular pressure while preserving vision.
Learn more about antagonists here:
https://brainly.com/question/9455401
#SPJ4
What additional health and fitness assessment is strongly recommended for a client with type 2 diabetes
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test.
What is health and fitness assessment?A health and fitness assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's physical and health status. The purpose of a health and fitness assessment is to gather information about an individual's health history, lifestyle, and physical fitness levels in order to develop a personalized plan for improving their health and wellness. The assessment typically includes a combination of physical measurements, medical tests, and self-reported information.
Examples of components that may be included in a health and fitness assessment are:
Body composition measurement: This includes determining the amount of body fat, muscle mass, and bone density.Cardiovascular fitness assessment: This can include measuring heart rate, blood pressure, and aerobic capacity.Strength and flexibility assessment: This measures an individual's ability to perform strength exercises and assesses the range of motion in joints.Medical history: This includes information about any past or present medical conditions, surgeries, or injuriesNutritional assessment: This includes information about an individual's eating habits, food choices, and any dietary restrictions or requirements.Lifestyle assessment: This includes information about an individual's physical activity levels, sleep patterns, stress levels, and substance use.The results of a health and fitness assessment can help healthcare professionals and fitness professionals to design safe and effective fitness programs, identify health risk factors, and develop a personalized plan for improving overall health and wellness.
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test. This test will help to assess the individual's glucose metabolism and identify any abnormalities or issues related to the control of blood sugar levels.
Other recommended assessments include:
Hemoglobin A1C test: This test measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and provides insight into the control of blood sugar levels over time.Lipid panel: A lipid panel is used to assess the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood, which are important risk factors for heart disease.Blood pressure: High blood pressure is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes, so it is important to regularly monitor blood pressure levels.Nephropathy screening: Nephropathy, or damage to the kidneys, is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes. Regular screening for nephropathy is important to detect and manage this condition.It is also important for a client with Type 2 Diabetes to have a comprehensive assessment of their diet and physical activity levels, as well as a review of any medications they are taking. This will help to identify any changes that need to be made in order to effectively manage their diabetes and maintain good overall health.
To know more about Health and Fitness Assessment, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30158743
#SPJ4
diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide (dlco) is another parameter used for diagnosis of pulmonary diseases because carbon monoxide is diffusion limited. according to the passage, which of the following would be true in emphesyma compared to a normal patient?
The diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide (DLCO) is reduced in emphysema compared to a normal patient.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease characterized by the destruction of the alveolar walls, which results in decreased surface area for gas exchange.
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a gas that diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane and binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, forming carboxyhemoglobin.
The DLCO test measures the amount of CO that diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream, which reflects the overall ability of the lungs to transfer gases.
In emphysema, the destruction of the alveolar walls reduces the surface area available for gas exchange, which results in a decreased DLCO. This means that less CO is able to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane and bind to hemoglobin, resulting in a lower DLCO value.
A reduced DLCO is a characteristic finding in emphysema and can aid in the diagnosis of the disease.
To know more about "Diffusion" refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/30391987#
#SPJ11
To collect a stool specimen, you should:
Answer:1.label a clean, screw-top container with your name, date of birth and date
Explanation:
which of the following is an example of a question topic that would be directed to the pharmacist
Answer:
You need to show the following first, before you get an answer
which of the following words means a simple soluble protein?
The word that means a simple soluble protein is Albumin.
Albumin is a term used to describe a class of proteins that are water-soluble and serve various functions in the body. It is a type of simple soluble protein that is abundant in the blood plasma. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure, transporting hormones, fatty acids, and other substances in the blood, and regulating fluid balance.
Colloid refers to a mixture in which particles are dispersed throughout a liquid medium but are larger than molecules, such as gelatin or starch dispersed in water. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body. Antibodies are complex proteins produced by the immune system in response to specific antigens. Corpuscle refers to a small cell or cell-like structure, such as a blood cell or sensory receptor.
Among the given options, only Albumin fits the description of a simple soluble protein. It is an important component of the blood plasma and has various vital functions in the body.
To know more about Albumin, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/29544650#
#SPJ11
Complete question:
Which of the following words means a simple soluble protein?
Colloid
Ferritin
Antibody
Albumin
Corpuscle
Which of these best describes the purpose for “hands-only” CPR?
Hands-only CPR is better and more effective than full CPR and is now the best way to provide CPR for any patient by any responder
Hands-only CPR reduces risk of liability and increases oxygenation better than CPR with mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
Hands-only CPR is now the only method for providing CPR regardless your level of education and expertise
Hands-only CPR was designed for those who are not trained or feel uncomfortable delivering mouth-to-mouth breaths. It doesn't replace traditional CPR
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The point of hands only CPR is to make it easier on those with a lack of training a give them a way to give care to someone who needs it even if they do not know how to, the point is that if you are not in sports med or EMT training then you will at least be able to help if no one else is around, otherwise use an AED
An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Which of the following techniques of physical examination must an EMT master? a) Percussion, inspection, & palpation b) Auscultation, visualization, & percussion c) Inspection, percussion, & auscultation d) Inspection, palpation, and ausculation
Techniques of physical examination must an EMT master are (c) Inspection, percussion, & auscultation.
EMTs (Emergency Medical Technicians) are trained to perform basic physical examinations as part of their assessment of patients. The primary techniques they must master are inspection, percussion, and auscultation.
Inspection involves visually observing the patient's body and looking for any abnormalities, such as swelling, discoloration, or signs of injury.
Percussion is the technique of tapping on body surfaces to assess the underlying structures. It can help determine the presence of fluid, air, or solid masses in the body.
Auscultation involves listening to sounds produced by the body using a stethoscope. EMTs primarily focus on auscultating the lungs and heart to assess for abnormal breath sounds or heart rhythms.
Palpation, which involves touching and feeling the body with the hands, is also an important technique in physical examination. However, it is not listed in the options provided.
Therefore, the correct answer is c) Inspection, percussion, & auscultation.
To know more about the EMTs refer here :
https://brainly.com/question/5010640#
#SPJ11
health records management
Health records management refers to the process of collecting, organizing, and maintaining healthcare-related information for patients.
What is Health records management?Health records management is important for several reasons, including:
Providing a comprehensive view of a patient's health history, which can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about diagnosis and treatment.
Ensuring accuracy and completeness of patient information, which is critical for effective healthcare delivery and patient safety.
Supporting communication and collaboration among healthcare providers, which can improve care coordination and patient outcomes.
Meeting legal and regulatory requirements for maintaining patient records, including privacy and security standards.
Learn more about Health records management:https://brainly.com/question/30746924
#SPJ1
A 31-year-old man completes a half-iron triathlon and immediately submits several blood samples for a research protocol on the effects of vigorous exercise on lipids. His triglycerides (TG) are found to elevated at 232 mg/dL. He consumed almost no fat during the race and ate a carbohydrate-rich breakfast. How do you explain his result
Answer:
The increase in triglycerides can be a result of a diet with excess carbohydrates.
Explanation:
As we saw in the question presented above, the man ate a carbohydrate-rich breakfast. Since he does strenuous exercise, it's likely that all of his meals are high in carbohydrates, so he has a lot of body energy. However, this can generate excess carbohydrate in his body and this excess can stimulate insulin, which in turn stimulates the body's fat cells to form more fat. The increase in body fat is accompanied by an increase in the level of triglycerides, which is one of the components of fat.
You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths
well first you need to do compressions, 100-120 if it's a child i think under 8 yrs old, and then you can provide 2 breaths and more if needed i think at most around 5
Answer: it is right
Explanation: try it
Elena and Pablo had planned to have their first child with only a minimum of medical intervention. However, when the fetal monitor revealed that their child was in distress, their obstetrician recommended a(n) ___________ delivery.
When the fetal monitor showed that their child had been in distress, their physician suggested a cesarean delivery.
What does a fetal monitor do?The heart rate of the unborn child is frequently measured during prenatal appointments. During labor, it could also be used to monitor the fetal heart rate. Throughout labor and delivery, the healthcare professional may also continuously monitor your baby's heart rate.
Fetal monitoring throughout pregnancy: Is it safe?Heart rate tracking is generally safe. However, the majority of medical professionals think that for pregnancies with little risk of problems, continuous monitoring is not required. Your movement may be limited by continuous electronic fetal monitoring, which can be advantageous during labor.
To know more about fetal monitor visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30100759
#SPJ1