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Presbycusis is typically associated with sensorineural hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss refers to hearing loss that occurs due to damage or dysfunction of the inner ear.
(cochlea) or the auditory nerve pathways that transmit sound signals from the ear to the brain. Presbycusis is a type of age-related hearing loss that occurs gradually over time as a result of natural aging processes, and it is the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in older adults.
Presbycusis often presents as difficulty in hearing high-pitched sounds, understanding speech in noisy environments, and overall reduction in hearing sensitivity. It is typically bilateral, affecting both ears, and tends to progress slowly over many years. Diagnosis and management of presbycusis typically involve a thorough evaluation by an audiologist or an otolaryngologist (ear, nose, and throat specialist), a
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Related Questions
why scientist can't stop death in the world?
Answers
Answer:
Because they are not man made buh God's creation
a 4-year-old child is receiving amoxicillin (amoxil) to treat otitis media and is in the clinic for a well-child checkup on the last day of antibiotic therapy. the provider orders varicella (varivax); mumps, measles, and rubella (mmr); inactivated polio (ipv); and diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (dtap) vaccines to be given. which action by the nurse is correct?
Answers
A 4-year-old child is receiving amoxicillin (Amoxil) to treat otitis media and is in the clinic for a well-child checkup on the last day of antibiotic therapy. The provider orders varicella (Varivax), mumps, measles, and rubella (MMR), inactivated polio (IPV), and diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccines to be given.
Which action by the nurse is correct?The correct action by the nurse is to delay the live virus vaccines until at least 3 months after the completion of antibiotic therapy with Amoxil. Varivax is a live attenuated virus vaccine that should not be given until at least 3 months after the completion of antibiotic therapy to avoid the potential for decreased vaccine efficacy.
The MMR vaccine is also a live attenuated virus vaccine and should be given 3 months after the completion of antibiotic therapy. IPV and DTaP vaccines are not live attenuated virus vaccines, and they can be administered simultaneously with Amoxil or other antibiotics. Therefore, the nurse should delay the administration of Varivax and MMR vaccines until at least 3 months after the completion of antibiotic therapy.
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Most commonly known as farsightedness or nearsightedness, these are two types of a condition where images do not form correctly on the retina. Astigmatism is also a form of this condition:_____________
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Most commonly known as farsightedness or nearsightedness, these are two types of a condition where images do not form correctly on the retina. Astigmatism is also a form of this condition: Yes.
What is Astigmatism?Astigmatism is also a type of refractive error, which means that the eye is unable to properly focus light on the retina. With astigmatism, the curvature of the cornea or lens is irregular, which can cause blurry or distorted vision at all distances. Like nearsightedness and farsightedness, astigmatism can be corrected with eyeglasses, contact lenses, or refractive surgery.
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Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are each subject to ________ control.
Answers
Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are each subject to Allosteric control.
What is significant about the enzymes phosphofructokinase and hexokinase?
The following key aspects of glycolysis are covered: Using the power of ATP, an enzyme known as hexokinase converts glucose into glucose-6-phosphate by adding a phosphate group. Similar to this, an enzyme known as phosphofructokinase uses ATP to modify fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-diphosphate by adding a phosphate group.Allosteric Enzyme -
An allosteric enzyme is an enzyme that contains a region to which small, regulatory molecules ("effectors") may bind in addition to and separate from the substrate binding site and thereby affect the catalytic activity.
What is a allosteric effect?
The binding of a ligand to one site on a protein molecule in such a way that the properties of another site on the same protein are affected.
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whats a class b misdemeaner
Answers
Answer:Misdemeanors in New York are divided into 3 classes: Class A misdemeanors, Class B misdemeanors, and unclassified misdemeanors.
1. Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's medical expenses due to the fall on public parking lot?
2.
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Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's income due to her inability to work for up to four months?
Answers
A car accident has left a 10 years old teenager with 2 broken bones at the head of his/her left humerus bone and at the shaft of his/her left femur bone. Please discuss the healing process and the long term consequences of this accident on the teenager.
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The healing process of a fracture in the humerus and femur bones. The healing process of a fracture in the humerus bone and the femur bone is quite long.
The bones take around 3 to 6 weeks to heal. The healing process is affected by a few factors such as the age of the patient, the location of the fracture, and the type of the fracture.
There are three types of fractures: simple, compound, and comminuted.
The simple fracture means the bone is broken in one place, the compound fracture is when the bone is broken in multiple places, and the comminuted fracture is when the bone is shattered into several pieces.
When the 10-year-old teenager breaks the head of their left humerus bone and the shaft of their left femur bone, it can take up to 6 months to heal completely. The doctor may put the patient in a cast or a splint, depending on the severity of the fracture.
Long term consequences of a fracture caused by a car accident. The long term consequences of a fracture caused by a car accident on a teenager depend on the severity of the fracture.
Here are some potential long term consequences of a fracture caused by a car accident on a teenager: There may be permanent deformities or limited mobility in the area that was fractured.
If the bones do not heal properly, there may be a chance of arthritis or osteoarthritis in the future.
The patient may experience a decrease in bone strength in the area that was fractured.
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QUESTION 2 What relationship exists between the method presented here and the FRAS assay
O general positive correlation
O general negative correlation
O no correlation
O strong negative correlation
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a 22-year-old law student comes to the office complaining of severe abdominal pain radiating to his back. he states it began last night after hours of heavy drinking. he has had abdominal pain and vomiting in the past after drinking but never as bad as this. he cannot keep any food or water down, and these symptoms have been going on for almost 12 hours. he has had no recent illnesses or injuries. his past medical history is unremarkable. he denies smoking or using illegal drugs, but admits to drinking 6 to 10 beers per weekend night. he admits that last night he drank around 14 drinks. examination shows a young man appearing his stated age in some distress. he is leaning over on the examination table and holding his abdomen with his arms. his blood pressure is 90/60 and his pulse is 120. he is afebrile. his abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. he has no murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. the remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. his rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. he has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. blood work is pending. what etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?
Answers
The etiology of this patient's abdominal pain most likely resulted in a condition known as acute pancreatitis
What is acute pancreatitis?Acute pancreatitis is a condition in which the pancreas becomes inflamed (swelled) for a short period of time. The pancreas is a small organ that is located behind the stomach and helps in digestion. Most people with acute pancreatitis feel better within about a week and have no further problems.Acute pancreatitis is usually caused by gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption, but sometimes the cause is unknown.What is the best treatment for acute pancreatitis?Hospitalization to treat dehydration with intravenous (IV) fluids and oral fluids if swallowable.Oral or IV painkillers and antibiotics if pancreatic infection.If unable to eat, low-fat diet or feeding by tube or IV.To learn more about acute pancreatitis visit:
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Write a short explanation understandable to a patient's family on why antibiotics are being combined in the treatment of their family member.
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we are adding antibiotics to your (family member enter here) treatment because your (family member enter here) is rejecting the treatment or the treatment is not strong enough.
4. Through the use of
patient may view open appointments or schedule their own appoint
O A. patient flow
O B. patient portal
C. patient gateway
OD. patient access
Answers
Answer:
patient portal
Explanation:
19. A parent is concerned with the interpersonal skills of her 12-year-old son. Based on interpersonal theory, the nurse should asks:
Answers
Answer:
Do you have any outstanding medical issues?
Explanation:
Always be cautious around kids
Name three advantages to maintaining the condition of ems vehicals?
Answers
Answer:
An ambulance is a medically equipped vehicle which transports patients to treatment facilities, such as hospitals. Typically, out-of-hospital medical care is provided to the patient.
Ambulances are used to respond to medical emergencies by emergency medical services. For this purpose, they are generally equipped with flashing warning lights and sirens. They can rapidly transport paramedics and other first responders to the scene, carry equipment for administering emergency care and transport patients to hospital or other definitive care. Most ambulances use a design based on vans or pick-up trucks. Others take the form of motorcycles, cars, buses, aircraft and boats.
Generally, vehicles count as an ambulance if they can transport patients. However, it varies by jurisdiction as to whether a non-emergency patient transport vehicle (also called an ambulette) is counted as an ambulance. These vehicles are not usually (although there are exceptions) equipped with life-support equipment, and are usually crewed by staff with fewer qualifications than the crew of emergency ambulances. Conversely, EMS agencies may also have emergency response vehicles that cannot transport patients. These are known by names such as nontransporting EMS vehicles, fly-cars or response vehicles.
The term ambulance comes from the Latin word "ambulare" as meaning "to walk or move about which is a reference to early medical care where patients were moved by lifting or wheeling. The word originally meant a moving hospital, which follows an army in its movements Ambulances (Ambulancias in Spanish) were first used for emergency transport in 1487 by the Spanish forces during the siege of Málaga by the Catholic Monarchs against the Emirate of Granada. During the American Civil War vehicles for conveying the wounded off the field of battle were called ambulance wagons. Field hospitals were still called ambulances during the Franco-Prussian Warof 1870 and in the Serbo-Turkish war of 1876 even though the wagons were first referred to as ambulances about 1854 during the Crimean War.An ambulance is a medically equipped vehicle which transports patients to treatment facilities, such as hospitals.Typically, out-of-hospital medical care is provided to the patient.
Explanation:
The nurse writes up notes on a patient seen in the emergency room. In layman’s terms, translate the notes to explain what is happening.
48 y.o. male c/o SOB. Issues increase upon activity, decrease at rest. h/o COPD pulse oximetry 81%
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Answer: 48 Year old male complains of Shortness of breath, issues increase upon acticity, decrease at rest. history of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease(Coughing disease) pulse oximetry 81% Which 81% is normal.
Explanation: your welcome, brainliest?
A normal level of oxygen is usually 95% or higher. Some people with chronic lung disease or sleep apnea can have normal levels around 90%.
Dr. Temple Grandin is a human psychologist who is an expert at understanding animals.
False
True
Answers
true.She is a prominent proponent for the humane treatment of livestock for slaughter and the author of more than 60 scientific papers on animal behavior.
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Answers
What is commonly associated with pelvic fracture and urethral injury?
Answers
Non displaced pelvic fracture is commonly associated with pelvic fracture and urethral injury.
Musculoskeletal injuries are any harm to the bones, muscles, ligaments, nerves, or tendons that causes pain. Despite the fact that pain can be generalized and impact the entire body, it frequently concentrates in the hands and wrists because of their constant use and exposure.
They consist of work-related upper limb disorders, cumulative trauma disorders, repetitive motion injuries, and repetitive strain injuries (RSIs) (WRULDs).
Therefore, Non displaced pelvic fracture is commonly associated with pelvic fracture and urethral injury.
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a measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed
Answers
The measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed bioavailability.
The bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which a nutrient from food or dietary supplements is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and utilized by the body. It represents the proportion of the ingested nutrient that is actually available for physiological processes and can be utilized by cells and tissues.
The bioavailability of a nutrient is influenced by various factors, including its chemical form, interactions with other nutrients or substances, the efficiency of absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, and individual differences in metabolism. For example, some nutrients may be better absorbed when consumed with certain foods or in specific forms, while others may have lower absorption rates or be affected by factors such as medication use or medical conditions.
Assessing the bioavailability of nutrients is important in understanding their impact on health and determining dietary recommendations. It helps in estimating nutrient requirements, designing nutritional interventions, and evaluating the efficacy of different food processing or fortification methods to enhance nutrient availability and utilization by the body.
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Owen Unger, a 19-month-old male, is admitted to the hospital by his pediatrician, Dr. Curtis, after a chest x-ray confirmed the child has pneumonia. Dr. Curtis and Mrs. Unger, Owen’s mother, discuss the child’s fever, cough, and diarrhea. Mrs. Unger provides a pertinent PFSH. An extended problem-focused ROS is completed and an extended examination of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is performed. The course of treatment planned by Dr. Curtis is straightforward as the child’s condition is of low severity.
Answers
Which of the following is a common risk factor for endothelial injury?
OA. Atrial fibrillation
OB. High levels of high-density lipoproteins
OC. Hypertension
D. Low levels of low-density lipoproteins
Answers
Answer:
OC. Hypertension
Explanation:
Wilfred is outside in the spring cutting the grass. He notices that his nose and sinuses are stuffy and he is having trouble breathing. All this reminds him of his allergy to pollen. Which BEST describes the commonly prescribed drugs for his condition and how they can help him?
a. Antihistamines reduce the allergic response.
b. Bronchodilators reduce the allergic response.
c. Inhaled steroids relieve the tension in the lungs.
d. Leukotrine inhibitors relieve the tension in the lungs.
Answers
Answer:
a.
Explanation:
What is the ICD 10 code for pyelonephritis?
Answers
The ICD-10 code for pyelonephritis is N12
N12 is the code for pyelonephritis, which is an infection of the kidney and renal pelvis. The code N12 is assigned to pyelonephritis because it is considered a disease of the genitourinary system, which includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.
The codes within each chapter are further divided into subcategories, and the specific code assigned to a diagnosis depends on the details of the case, such as the type of pyelonephritis (acute or chronic), which kidney is affected and the presence of any complications.
As an example, the ICD-10 code for acute pyelonephritis in a female with laterality unspecified would be N12.0
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A small child has lost a large amount of blood from a leglaceration with fracture. You see that the child does not make eye contact with rescuers and his skin is mottled. What do
these elements of assessment tell you? The child is
A. Very frightened
B. Scared to move at all
C. In respiratory distress
D. In cardiovascular shock
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Does having the Cov!d vaccine make it safe to be out in the public without the risk of getting the virus?
Answers
Answer:
short answer.....no
Explanation:
does not prevent contracting the virus....actually reduces severity of symptoms
Have a nice day/night!
Help me please please thank you
Answers
Answer:
Question 19 is Diagnosis!!
Explanation:Diagnosis means the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms.
12) Homo is considered a
a. Prefix
b. Suffix
c. Word root
d. Combining vowel
Answers
A.Homo is considered a prefix
Answer:
Prefix
Explanation:
The word homo originally means human or man. When used as a prefix it means homosexual. It means the same in Greek. It is from a Greek word.
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1. Assume you have a 10-lb weight in your right hand. Explain why it is easier to flex the right
elbow when your forearm is supinated than when it is pronated.
Explain which muscles help the movement
Explain in detail each muscle responsible for the movement , as well as which muscles are antagonist ,synergist ,fixator ,and exactly how the insertion and origin points of these muscles don’t make it easier to flex elbow while pronated.
Answers
Answer:
I did it already.
Explanation:
Supinated would be your palm is up; so flexing your elbow up in order to lift the weight is the natural way that you flex your elbow.
Pronated is when your palm is face down; so even without the weight in your hand you wouldn't be able to flex your elbow (at least not upwards, lifting the weight).
The med term -trophy means which of the following?
one
tension
Development
weakness
Answers
Answer: I believe it is Weakness
which of the following scenarios would most likely allow for secondary tuberculosis to occur?
Answers
The scenario most likely to allow for secondary tuberculosis is prolonged exposure to an active tuberculosis patient in close quarters.
Secondary tuberculosis occurs when a person who has previously been infected with the tuberculosis bacteria becomes reinfected with the bacteria at a later time. This reinfection typically happens due to prolonged exposure to an active tuberculosis patient in close quarters. When an individual with an active tuberculosis infection coughs, sneezes, or talks, they release tiny droplets containing the bacteria into the air. If a susceptible person inhales these droplets, the bacteria can enter their respiratory system and cause an infection.
Factors such as the duration and proximity of exposure play a significant role in the transmission of tuberculosis. Prolonged and close contact increases the likelihood of inhaling a sufficient number of bacteria-laden droplets to establish a new infection. This is why scenarios such as living in the same household or spending extended periods in enclosed spaces like hospitals or correctional facilities with an active tuberculosis patient present the highest risk for secondary tuberculosis.
It's important to note that secondary tuberculosis is more common in individuals with weakened immune systems, as their ability to fight off the bacteria is compromised. Therefore, people with conditions like HIV/AIDS, diabetes, or those undergoing immunosuppressive treatments are particularly vulnerable to developing secondary tuberculosis.
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Use the Internet to research vital signs, the pulse, and blood pressure. Discuss your findings and include these points:
Describe what blood pressure and pulse are and why they are used.
Identify the normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse for adults.
Identify three reasons why a patient would have an elevated pulse.
Describe five risk factors for high blood pressure.
Identify two classifications of drugs used to treat high blood pressure.
Identify two pieces of medical equipment needed to check a patient’s blood pressure.
Discuss these medical terms in your report:
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Hypotension
Answers
Answer:
b
Explanation: