Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should perform CPR for 30 seconds.
An automated external defibrillator (AED) could be a medical device designed to research the center rhythm and deliver an electrical shock to victims of fibrillation to revive the center rhythm to traditional. fibrillation is that the uncoordinated cardiac rhythm most frequently to blame for sudden cardiac arrest.
An EMT, additionally referred to as an EMT-Basic, cares for patients at the scene of an occurrence and whereas taking patients by machine to a hospital. associate degree EMT has the abilities to assess a patient's condition and to manage metabolism, cardiac, and trauma emergencies.
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using the cpt code book, assign code(s) for the following scenario: Dr. Smith admits Ralph to a nursing home. He performs a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination and medical decision making of high complexity. Code for the initial visit for admission of a patient to a nursing home. List the CPT code verified in the Tabular List.
Answer:
CPT Code 99306
Explanation:
Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph with a high medical decision making complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.
What is CPT code?CPT code is an abbreviation for current procedural terminology code and it can be defined as the set of numbers that are formally assigned to each task and service that is being offered by a healthcare provider.
Basically, a current procedural terminology (CPT) code is typically used by an insurer to determine the amount of money that should be paid to a healthcare provider for the services rendered.
Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph, and the medical decision making is of high complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.
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which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? a patient diagnosed with: group of answer choices
The nurse should assess a patient diagnosed with renal failure.
Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis.
Hypernatremia is resulted by Diabetes Insipidus.
Respiratory acidosis is brought on by pulmonary conditions, however hyperkalemia is unaffected.
What is respiratory acidosis?
When the lungs are unable to expel all of the carbon dioxide the body produces, a condition known as respiratory acidosis develops. Body fluids, particularly the blood, become too acidic as a result.
What is Hypernatremia?
Most frequently, those who don't drink enough water develop hypernatremia. Usually, this is brought on by insufficient thirst or poor judgment. Examples include a person who suffers from dementia or a baby who has trouble accessing fluids.
Metabolic acidosis: What is it?
Metabolic acidosis refers to the accumulation of acid in the body brought on by renal disease or kidney failure. Insufficient acid excretion, excessive acid production, or an inability to maintain a healthy balance of acid in your body are all symptoms of having too much acid in your body fluids.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
A young adult is admitted for elective nasal surgery for a deviated septum. Which sign would be an important indicator of bleeding even if the nasal drip pad remained dry and intact?
Answer:
repeated swallowing
Explanation:
In such a situation the most important indicator for bleeding would be repeated swallowing. This is because the bleeding may be occurring and sliding down the back of the individual's throat which may feel like excess saliva, which in term would cause the individual to swallow repeatedly. In this process, the blood may completely pass the nasal drip pad without ever touching it, thus why it is remaining dry and intact.
you believe a victim may have a flail chest. what is the next care step you should take?
The next care step you should take if you suspect a victim may have a flail chest is to call 911.
Flail chest is a serious medical condition where a segment of the rib cage becomes detached from the rest of the chest wall, causing instability and impairing normal breathing. It is considered a medical emergency that requires immediate professional medical attention.
While the other options listed may be relevant in certain situations, calling 911 is the most critical step because flail chest requires specialized medical intervention. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are trained to provide the necessary treatment and transportation to a healthcare facility equipped to handle the condition.
Once emergency services have been activated, they will assess the victim's condition, provide appropriate care, and transport the individual to a hospital for further evaluation and treatment. Prompt medical attention is crucial in managing flail chest to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the victim.
The complete question is:
You believe a victim may have a flail chest. What is the next care step you should take?
- Call 911
- Have the victim sit in a position for easiest breathing
- Position the victim lying on his or her injured side to give more support to the flail area
- Splint the flail area with a small pillow or thick padding loosely bandaged in place
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how does safety plan help clients return safely to their home
A safety plan is an essential tool for individuals who want to return safely to their homes. It helps individuals assess their safety needs and develop a plan to address potential risks or hazards. The goal of a safety plan is to create a safe environment for the individual and minimize the risk of harm.
A safety plan is a comprehensive approach that assesses the individual's safety needs and creates strategies to address them. It considers all potential risks, hazards, and potential sources of danger and helps to mitigate these risks. Safety plans can help clients identify areas of their home that need repair or maintenance, such as loose rugs or electrical hazards, and work with family members, friends, or caregivers to address these issues.
Another essential aspect of a safety plan is the identification of potential triggers that could lead to unsafe situations. For example, clients with mental health conditions may have certain triggers that could lead to unsafe behavior, such as substance use or emotional outbursts. In these cases, a safety plan can help clients identify these triggers and develop strategies to manage them effectively.
A safety plan also helps clients identify safe places to go in case of an emergency. For example, if a client feels unsafe in their home due to a domestic violence situation, a safety plan can identify alternative safe locations to go to, such as a friend's house or a shelter. The plan can also include instructions on how to contact emergency services, including the police or medical services, if needed.
In conclusion, a safety plan plays a vital role in helping clients return safely to their homes. It helps clients assess their safety needs and develop strategies to address potential risks and hazards. Safety plans consider all potential sources of danger, including environmental hazards, mental health triggers, and domestic violence situations. It is a comprehensive approach that identifies safe places to go in case of an emergency and outlines the steps to take to contact emergency services if needed. A safety plan is an essential tool that helps clients return to their homes safely and with confidence.
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Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by: the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act. the 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments. the 1970 Controlled Substances Act. a 1915 Supreme Court decision.
Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by various laws and decisions. The 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act was one of the first federal laws to regulate drugs and require accurate labeling of ingredients.
It did not make possession of these substances without a prescription a crime but laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.The 1915 Supreme Court decision in United States v. Doremus upheld the constitutionality of the Harrison Narcotics Tax Act, which required doctors and pharmacists to register and pay a tax to prescribe and dispense opioids. This decision allowed the government to regulate and control the production, distribution, and use of these drugs.The 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA) replaced previous drug laws and established a schedule of controlled substances based on their medical use, potential for abuse, and safety. Possession of opioids without a prescription is illegal under the CSA, and penalties vary depending on the drug's schedule and the amount in possession.The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription. These amendments also established mandatory minimum sentences for drug offenses, leading to the mass incarceration of drug offenders and disproportionately affecting communities of color.In summary, possession of opioids without a prescription was made a crime by the 1970 Controlled Substances Act, which established a schedule of controlled substances and regulated their production, distribution, and use. The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription, while the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act and the 1915 Supreme Court decision laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.For more such question on heroin
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The faculty member tells the nursing student to obtain an IV microdrip tubing set. What is the drop factor on an IV microdrip
The term "tubing set" refers to a device that transports fluids. IV microdrip tubing set is used to administer small amounts of IV fluids accurately. It has a drop factor of 60.
This means that there are 60 drops in one milliliter of fluid. The number of drops per minute is directly proportional to the flow rate of the IV fluid. If the flow rate increases, the number of drops per minute also increases to provide accurate administration of small amounts of fluid. The tubing set is designed to regulate the amount of fluid entering the patient's bloodstream. The IV microdrip tubing set has a specialized system that allows the nurse to control the flow of fluid by adjusting the roller clamp. The roller clamp is the device that regulates the flow rate of the IV fluid. The roller clamp is used to control the rate of flow of the IV fluid, which can range from very slow to very fast, depending on the patient's needs. The roller clamp can be used to increase or decrease the flow rate, depending on the patient's response to the IV fluid and the rate of infusion needed to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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5-3^2exwwwwAWWssssssssssss
Answer:
5-3^2= -4
Explanation:
when does a fetus have a heartbeat and brain activity
The fetus has a heartbeat and brain activity by the end of the seventh week and the initiation of the eighth week of pregnancy.
What do you mean by Fetus?A Fetus may be defined as an unborn baby which grows inside the uterus of the female. It mostly develops 5-6 weeks after the successful conception.
The brain cells are started to form after five-week of conception. The electrical impulse will start working after the eighth week of pregnancy, the first synapse at the seventh week, and organ development after the tenth week of pregnancy.
Therefore, the fetus has a heartbeat and brain activity by the end of the seventh week and the initiation of the eighth week of pregnancy.
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Disease, which is an autoimmune disorder caused by hyperthyroidism, is often characterized by goiter, exophthalmos, or both.
Answer:
It is graves disease.
Explanation:
What are the kidney stones made from, and what are the cuases and treatments?
Kidney stones are hard deposits made from minerals and salts, primarily calcium oxalate, but they can also be made of uric acid or struvite. The formation of kidney stones is caused by various factors, including dehydration, genetics, obesity, certain medications, and medical conditions such as gout, hyperparathyroidism, and urinary tract infections.
Treatment for kidney stones depends on the size, location, and composition of the stone. Small stones can often be passed through the urinary tract with pain medication and increased fluid intake. Larger stones may require shock wave lithotripsy, a procedure that uses sound waves to break up the stone, or ureteroscopy, a minimally invasive procedure that uses a small scope to remove the stone.
In some cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the stone. Preventative measures, such as increasing water intake, reducing salt and animal protein intake, and taking medication to prevent stone formation, may also be recommended.
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What is Expandible supplies
Answer:
an item necessary to carry out a medical procedure or to maintain the client's health at home.
Expendable is defined as being intended for single or short-term use before being discarded.
Expendable medical supplies are limited to a quantity used by the typical client
Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
Which processes do protists use in asexual reproduction?(can be more than one)
a process similiar to mitosis
schizogony
budding
binary fission
Answer:
budding, binary fission and a process similar to mitosis I believe
In normal healthy adult, Calculate the Gain of control system of cold temperature if A cold exposure is expected to bring the body temperature down to 20°C but brings it down only to 36.5°C?
Answer:
Increased intraluminal pressure may help maintain vasodilation in a dependent arm even after hypothermia triggers centrally mediated thermoregulatory vasoconstriction. We therefore tested the hypotheses that the threshold (triggering core temperature) and gain (increase in vasoconstriction per degree centigrade) of cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm during anesthesia. Anesthesia was maintained with 0.4 minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration of desflurane in 10 volunteers in the left-lateral position. Mean skin temperature was reduced to 31 degrees C to decrease core body temperature. Fingertip blood flow in both arms was measured, as was core body temperature. The vasoconstriction threshold was slightly, but significantly, less in the dependent arm (36.2 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C, mean +/- SD) than in the upper arm (36.5 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C). However, the gain of vasoconstriction in the dependent arm was 2.3-fold greater than in the upper arm. Consequently, intense vasoconstriction (i.e., a fingertip blood flow of 0.15 mL/min) occurred at similar core temperatures. In the lateral position, the vasoconstriction threshold was reduced in the dependent arm; however, gain was also increased in the dependent arm. The thermoregulatory system may thus recognize that hydrostatic forces reduce the vasoconstriction threshold and may compensate by sufficiently augmenting gain.
Implications: The threshold for cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm, but the gain of vasoconstriction is increased. Consequently, the core temperature triggering intense vasoconstriction was similar in each arm, suggesting that the thermoregulatory system compensates for the hydrostatic effects of the lateral position.
Mr Ford shows you a deep wound on the interior side of his body medial to the left hip lateral to the ambucus inferior to the collar bone and interior to the waist. In the activity, place an indication where where the patient describes the location.
Answer:
a tad bit lower then the rib cage
Explanation:
42-year-old male accountant with a significant past medical history of obesity who presents to his primary care physician after one week of lower back pain. after moving into a new home three days ago, he woke up the next morning with bilateral lower back pain without any radiation. he denies any recent trauma, fever, chills, numbness, tingling, or incontinence. he has not had any urinary frequency or dysuria. he takes no medications and has no significant past medical history. which additional findings in his history or physical exam would make the diagnosis of lumbosacral sprain/strain more likely?
There are several additional findings in the history and physical exam that would make the diagnosis of lumbosacral sprain/strain more likely in this patient:
1. History of recent physical activity or heavy lifting, which can strain the muscles and ligaments in the lower back.
2. History of poor posture or prolonged sitting, which can put additional stress on the lower back muscles and ligaments.
3. Pain that is worsened with movement or twisting, which is a common symptom of a sprain or strain.
4. Tenderness to palpation over the lower back muscles or sacroiliac joints, which may be inflamed or strained.
5. Limited range of motion of the lumbar spine, which may indicate muscle spasm or joint inflammation.
6. Presence of muscle spasm or guarding, which may be a protective response to injury.
7. Absence of neurologic symptoms, such as numbness or tingling, which suggests that there is no nerve root compression or herniation causing the pain.
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Which is an important assessment step to identify risk for HIV?
Answer:
Sexual and drug substance use risks should be determined during a routine health history with every new patient and updated regularly during periodic health care.
Risk assessment helps to identify individuals at risk; support recommendations for HIV, STD, and hepatitis screening; and establish risk reduction education topics and strategies.
Risk assessment can help people who are already infected access treatment
and learn how to avoid transmitting HIV to others.
Explanation:
How often should rescuers switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR?
A. After every cycle of CPR
B. After every two cycles of CPR
C. After every five cycles of CPR
D. After every 10 cycles of CPR
The rescuers should switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR
(B) After every two cycles of CPR.
During two-rescuer CPR, it is important for rescuers to switch roles periodically to prevent fatigue and maintain the effectiveness of chest compressions. The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends rotating roles every two minutes or after every two cycles of CPR.
By switching roles after every two cycles, each rescuer has an opportunity to perform chest compressions and provide rescue breaths. This rotation helps maintain the quality and intensity of chest compressions, which are crucial for adequate blood circulation during cardiac arrest.
It is important to note that the specific guidelines for CPR may vary slightly depending on the organization and region. However, the general principle of periodically switching roles to minimize fatigue and maximize efficiency remains consistent.
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A client with a burn injury asks, "Why does swelling happen after a burn?" What is the best initial response
A client with a burn injury asks, "Why does swelling happen after a burn?" The best initial response to a client with a burn injury asking why swelling happens after a burn is as follows:
Swelling occurs after a burn due to inflammation which is the body's natural response to injury. The body increases blood flow and sends white blood cells to the area to promote healing. As the blood vessels expand and leak fluid, swelling occurs, leading to discomfort, tenderness, and a decrease in range of motion.
Burns cause fluid shifts, and it's normal for swelling to occur after a burn injury. However, if the swelling is severe and painful, it may indicate an underlying issue like infection, and medical attention should be sought. The best approach to treating swelling after a burn injury is to elevate the affected area above the heart to help drain fluids and reduce swelling.
The process of healing from a burn injury is complex and often involves different stages. Burn injuries can range from minor to severe and can have long-lasting effects on the skin, body, and psyche. Burn injury healing time can vary, depending on the extent of the injury. Burn injuries can lead to swelling, which is a common symptom of burn injury. Swelling is the result of inflammation that is the body's natural response to injury. The body increases blood flow and sends white blood cells to the area to promote healing. As the blood vessels expand and leak fluid, swelling occurs, leading to discomfort, tenderness, and a decrease in range of motion.
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Underweight and undernourished adults who are over age 65 are at increased risk for low body protein and fat stores and a depressed immune system, which makes it more difficult to fight infections as well as weakness and fatigue.
Answer:
True!
Explanation:
(If this is a true or false answer it is true! With lack of nutrients and vitamins the body cannot produce the right chemicals to fight infections and it could also cause a chemical imbalance in the brain, causing depression and anxiety!
can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense
Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a
student’s right to receive an education free from
discrimination.
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature.
Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:
Verbal Harassment
Non-Verbal Harassment
Physical Harassment
Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments
of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,
including sexual harassment in education
programs and activities.
How does respiratory failure affect the muscular system?.
Answer:
Respiratory muscle weakness leads to hypoventilation, due to limited tidal volume, during rapid eye movement (REM) and non-REM sleep
Explanation:
Describe the deductible, coinsurance, and copayment requirements for an HMO plan.
Answer:
A deductible is the amount you pay for health care services before your health insurance begins to pay. The deductible in the HMO Plan will pay the full charges once you have reached the total deductible. You will start paying less, with a copay or coinsurance, depending on the selected plan. When the limit is reached, you share the cost with your plan by paying coinsurance.
Coinsurance is a percentage of a medical charge that you pay, with the rest paid by your health insurance plan, that typically applies after your deductible has been met. Let's say your health insurance plan's allowed amount for an office visit is $50 and your coinsurance is 20%. All you have to pay is the 20% and your coinsurance will pay the rest.
A health insurance copayment is a fixed amount a healthcare beneficiary pays for covered medical services. The rest of the balance is paid for by the person's insurance company. Copays for standard doctor visits are typically lower than those for specialists.
a nurse conducts a clinical interview with children to assess types of anxiety. which scale does the nurse use to measure phobias present in the children
The nurse can use the Fear Survey Schedule for Children-Revised (FSSC-R) to measure the presence and severity of phobias in children during a clinical interview.
The FSSC-R is a widely used self-report questionnaire that assesses various types of fears and phobias in children and adolescents, including specific phobias, social phobias, and separation anxiety disorder.
The FSSC-R consists of 24 items that assess the child's fears in different situations and activities, such as animals, darkness, and school. Each item is rated on a 5-point Likert scale, ranging from 0 (not afraid) to 4 (very afraid). The total score on the FSSC-R can be used to identify the presence and severity of phobias in the child and can help guide further assessment and treatment.
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percentage of a nutrient standard that is used for food labeling purposes. range of intake for a particular nutrient that is not likely to cause toxicity or deficiency. minimum amount of a nutrient that is safe to consume and cures the nutrient's deficiency disease. amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of 50% of healthy people in a particular population.
The Daily number, a nutritional reference number for a 2000-calorie diet, is used on food packaging. The RDA is the recommended daily allowance, the EAR satisfies 50% of requirements, and the ERM is the bare minimum to avoid deficiency.
To regulate food consumption and determine whether nutrient intake is adequate, nutritional reference values are used. The Daily Value (DV), a percentage of a nutrient benchmark used for product labelling reasons based on a 2000-calorie diet, is one of these numbers. The range of consumption for a specific nutrient that is unlikely to result in toxicity or deficit in healthy people is known as the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA).
The estimated minimum requirement (EMR) is the least quantity of a nutrient that is both safe to eat and effective at treating the illness caused by nutrient deficiency. The amount of a nutrient that is needed to satisfy the requirements of 50% of healthy individuals in a given community is known as the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR). Individuals can use these values as a reference to help meet their nutritional requirements and avoid nutrient deficiencies, which can result in a variety of harmful health effects.
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health policies sold in indiana are required to begin medical coverage of a newborn beginning at
In Indiana, health policies are required to begin medical coverage for a newborn starting from the moment of birth. This means that as soon as a baby is born, they are eligible for health insurance coverage under their parents' policy or through a separate policy specifically for the newborn.
The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that newborns have immediate access to necessary medical care and services from the very beginning of their lives. It helps parents to manage healthcare expenses related to childbirth and provides peace of mind knowing that their newborn is covered by insurance.
Parents should contact their insurance provider or review their policy documents to fully understand the coverage start date and any additional requirements or paperwork that may be necessary to add the newborn to the policy.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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