The vital signs taken by the dental assistant that will not be in the normal range will be the temperature. The normal temperature is going to be between the range of 97-99 F in adults.
What is the likely cause of the abnormal reading?The reason why an elevated temperature may be displayed is because you have a fever. This may be due to severe toothache that will be accompanied by other symptoms such as headaches, severe pain in the affected area and inflammation of the gums around the affected tooth.
The assistant must take into account when using the digital thermometer is that at least 40 seconds must be left to take the temperature correctly. This does not happen with the mercury thermometer.
The dental assistant should respond to this information on the patient's vital signs by notifying the attending physician of the patient's temperature in order to take this symptom into account for the treatment to be carried out for severe toothache.
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Which are lung conditions? Check all that apply.
silicosis
Obyssinosis
anthracosis
sleep apnea syndromes
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
dyspnea
Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
your welcome my dawg
Answer:
1 silicosis
2 byssinosis
3 anthracosis
Explanation:
8. Your patient is prescribed a medication 2.5 mg orally twice a day x 20 tablets. The
owner of the patient asks you how many days in total she should give her dog the
medication. What do you tell her?
Answer:
according to the tablet she will buy
Explanation:
if the pill is 2,5 it will be 10 days
if the pill is 5 mg and she needs to divide it to be suitable to the does which the dr described it will be 20 days
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Which method of collecting a dietary history is the most time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete
Questions
Which of the following methods of collecting a dietary history is the most
time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete?
A) food record
B) food frequency questionnaire
C) direct observation
D) 24-hour food recall
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Food Record.
Explanation:
The diet history refers to the historical assessment of an individuals food or dietary intake. It may detail the foods eaten over a 24 hour period, a month or a year.
Dietary History are important as they help to ascertain
whether or not the subject is pre-disposed to malnutrition, determine if there are habits which may lead to obesity, anda dietary combination which will help prevent diseasesCheers!
Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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In which part of the world is undernourishment most concentrated?
Answer:
I think it's Africa because on quizlet when that was asked it seemed that Africa was the right answer to that question but I'm unsure and if not then I don't know.
T/F: ventilation rate for adult cpr is 10-12 breaths / minute (i.e. every 5-6 seconds).
The given statement "ventilation rate for adult CPR is 10-12 breaths/minute " is True because the ventilation rate for adult CPR is generally recommended to be 10-12 breaths per minute, which translates to one breath every 5-6 seconds.
The purpose of ventilation in CPR is to provide oxygen to the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body. It is important to note that the recommended ventilation rate may vary depending on the specific CPR guidelines being followed. For example, the American Heart Association's CPR guidelines recommend a ventilation rate of 10 breaths per minute for adults, while the European Resuscitation Council recommends a ventilation rate of 8-10 breaths per minute.
In addition, the ventilation rate may be adjusted based on the individual receiving CPR. For example, if the person is intubated or has a tracheostomy tube in place, the ventilation rate may be higher or lower than the recommended range.
It is also important to remember that ventilation should be given in conjunction with chest compressions during CPR, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths. Maintaining an appropriate ventilation rate is critical for the success of CPR and improving the chances of survival for the person in cardiac arrest.
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Which of the following compounds will give a positive iodoform test?
A) 3-hexanone.
B) cyclohexanone.
C) 2-hexanone.
D) 4-heptanone.
E) 2-methyl-3-pentanone.
Answer:
E) 2-methyl-3-pentanone.
Explanation:
Which psychological disorder is characterized by psychosis and major disturbances in thought, perception, and behavior?.
Psychological schizophrenia is a condition that causes severe disturbances in thought, perception, and behavior.
Schizophrenia is characterised by severe perceptual problems and behavioural disturbances. Symptoms can include excessive agitation, persistent delusions, hallucinations, disordered thinking, and disorderly behaviour. Major disruptions in thought, perception, emotion, and behaviour are hallmarks of the devastating psychological disorder schizophrenia. Schizophrenia affects about 1% of people worldwide, and it is typically identified for the first time in early adulthood. Schizophrenia symptoms include psychotic manifestations like hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorder (abnormal ways of thinking), as well as decreased emotional expression, decreased motivation to achieve goals, difficulty forming social connections, motor impairment, and cognitive impairment.
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Susan, a medical assistant, is having trouble finding a venipuncture site on the left arm of her patient, Gabel. Susan has thoroughly assessed and palpated the antecubital veins, including the bigger median cubital vein, but still has not had success. Gabel does not want Susan to draw blood from her right arm.
• What techniques are available to Susan to make the veins on Gabel’s left arm more prominent?
• What would you say to Gabel to help calm her for the procedure?
(a) The techniques that Susan can try to make the veins on Gabel's left arm more prominent for venipuncture such as Applying a warm compress, Elevating the arm, Releasing a fist, Tapping the vein. (b) To help calm Gabel for the procedure, it is important to communicate effectively with her and provide reassurance.
(a) Applying a warm compress: Placing a warm compress on the area for several minutes can dilate the veins, making them more visible.
Elevating the arm: Raising the arm above the level of the heart can increase blood flow to the area, making the veins more prominent.
Releasing a fist: If the patient has been making a fist, releasing it can help the veins to dilate and become more visible.
Tapping the vein: Gentle tapping or stroking the area over the vein can help stimulate blood flow and make the vein more visible.
(b) To help calm Gabel for the procedure, it is important to communicate effectively with her and provide reassurance. Susan can explain the steps of the procedure and what to expect, including any discomfort that may be felt. It can also be helpful to provide distractions, such as conversation or music, to help Gabel focus on something other than the procedure. Encouraging deep breathing and relaxation techniques can also help reduce anxiety. It is essential to acknowledge and validate any concerns or fears that Gabel may have and to answer any questions she may have about the procedure. Additionally, expressing confidence in Susan's skills can help Gabel feel more at ease.
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During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures?
A) Spleen
B) Sigmoid
C) Appendix
D) Gallbladder
During abdominal assessment, the nurse notes tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding may indicate a disorder of the appendix structure. Here option C is the correct answer.
During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant, indicating a disorder of the appendix.
During an abdominal assessment, when the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant, this finding could indicate a disorder of the appendix.
Tenderness in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) is frequently an indication of appendicitis, particularly when it is related to other classic signs and symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, anorexia, rebound tenderness, and so on. Therefore option C is the correct answer.
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The healthcare provider can legally release private healthcare information, without patients’ consent, for all of the following except:
With the exception of the following circumstances, a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.
What are the exception when a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.when a medical emergency necessitates prompt treatment.when the disclosure of the information is mandated by a subpoena or a court order.when elder or child ab use or neglect is suspected.when there is a risk to the general welfare or security, as with infectious diseases.when doing so is mandated by law, such as when certain communicable diseases must be reported to public health authorities.In all other circumstances, the patient's permission is required before the healthcare provider releases their personal health information.
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which patient should receive prophylactic antibiotic therapy? a. a patient who is to have his teeth cleaned b. a patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomy c. a patient with a white blood cell count of 8000 cells/mm3 d. a patient with a high fever without an identifiable cause
The patient that would receive prophylactic antibiotic therapy is
b. a patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomyWhen to use prophylactic antibiotic therapyThe decision to administer prophylactic antibiotic therapy depends on various factors, including the specific procedure being performed, the patient's medical history, and any underlying conditions that may increase the risk of infection.
Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is commonly administered before surgical procedures like a hysterectomy to prevent surgical site infections. The specific antibiotic and duration would depend on factors such as the patient's medical history and the hospital's guidelines.
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fatty acids in foods consumed influence the composition of fats in the body.
The composition of fats in the body is influenced by the consumption of fatty acids in foods. When consuming foods high in unsaturated fatty acids, the body tends to store this type of fatty acid, incorporating it into the body's fat composition. Similarly, if foods high in saturated fatty acids are consumed, the same occurs with this type of fat.
There are two main types of fatty acids:
Saturated fatty acids: Saturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature. It is advisable to limit their intake as they are associated with elevated levels of cholesterol in the body.
Unsaturated fatty acids: Unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature. They are often considered "good" fats because they are associated with decreased cholesterol levels and a reduced risk of heart disease.
When it comes to saturated fat intake, it is recommended to consume no more than 13 grams per day. Therefore, 150 mg can be considered a small amount of saturated fat.
By understanding the differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids and their effects on cholesterol levels, individuals can make informed dietary choices to promote better health and reduce the risk of heart disease.
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The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the
The deepest part of the nephron loop is determined as the?
a.Site of blood filtration.
b.Region of highest interstitial osmolarity (solute concentration)
c.Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid
d.Region that NaCl flows out but not water.
Answer:
collecting points po
need ko po Kasi
Wala na po akong points para magtanong
sorry ok talaga
hope you understand
The deepest part of the Nephron Loop is determined as the Region that reabsorbs water in response to ADH; final adjustments to water and (solute) of tubular fluid. (Option c)
The Nephron Loop, also known as the Loop of Henle, is a crucial part of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and processing blood to form urine. The deepest part of the Nephron Loop, called the "ascending limb," is involved in reabsorbing water and solutes from the tubular fluid back into the bloodstream.
In this region, water is reabsorbed passively along with sodium and chloride ions in response to the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. The ascending limb plays a significant role in creating a concentration gradient in the surrounding interstitial fluid, establishing the osmotic gradient necessary for the reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts later in the nephron.
Option (c) correctly describes the functions of the deepest part of the Nephron Loop, making it the most appropriate choice among the given options.
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Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
This is a conclusion I have came up with for my leukemia project, Any suggestions what needs to be changed or what needs to be added??
In conclusion, you can try and prevent leukemia by reducing the amount you are in the sun without sunscreen, being a non-smoker, avoiding breathing toxic chemicals, and many other things. Leukemia is a cancer that can become deadly very fast if not treated and taken care of.
Answer:
The two most important categories of environmental factors causing cancer are tobacco and diet. Other important categories of environmental factors include alcohol, ultraviolet and ionizing radiation, medical procedures and drugs, occupation, reproductive behavior, pollution, and infection.
What are some examples of groups that can be oppressed? Select all that apply.
college graduates
African Americans
autistic children
White middle-class men
businesspeople
is it true/false that Medical professionals may wear light cologne or perfume?
THE_CONTROLS WHAT ENTERS AND LEAVES THE CELL.
O MITOCHONDRIA
RIBOSOMES
CELL MEMBRANE
O NUCLEUS
Which intervention is a priority for a patient with a retinal detachment?.
Answer:
Immediate ophthalmologic referralYour WELCOME!!
what is the main use of epinephrine
Answer
It's a type of injection used along with emergency medical treatment to treat life-threatening allergic reactions caused by insect bites or stings, foods, medications, latex, and other causes.
Channels in a cell membrane are made of
Answer:
Protein
Explanation:
opioid education should include which of the following? select all that apply. keep a record of pain experience and treatment response maintain adequate fluid and fiber intake to prevent constipation change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension monitor respiratory rate and call prescriber immediately if it is less than 10 breaths per minute or with any difficulty breathing maintain bedrest drink a full glass of water with each dose to prevent choking
Record your pain experiences and how your treatments are working. If you notice any breathing problems or a respiratory rate of less that 10 breaths per minute, keep an eye on it and call your doctor right away.
How crucial is therapy?For instance, treatments for chronic conditions include symptom reduction and the avoidance or delay of consequences. These could happen more quickly if you cease treatment, which might have a significant effect on both your life quality and your life expectancy.
What kinds of treatments are there?There are three types of medical treatment, according to theory: Curative: the act of curing a client of a disease. Palliative care is used to treat sickness symptoms. preventative: intended to postpone the onset of a disease.
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a solution contains 65 mg/ml of sodium pentobarbital. What volume of this drug would be appropriate to administer to a 300 g laboratory rat at dose of 40 mg/kg
Answer:
0.18 ml would be appropriate
Explanation:
1kg ↔ 1000mgx ↔ 300mg
x = 0.3 kg
therefore; 40 × 0.3 = 12 mg/kg
65 ↔ 1ml12 ↔ y
y = 0.18 ml
What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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Fibrosarcomas usually occur in which of the following species. a. cat b. sheep c. dog d. horse
cat
Cancer is not a word anyone likes to hear, say or even think of but unfortunately our pet cats are not immune to it. A fibrosarcoma is a type of cancer that occurs in cats and it's something that all cat owners should be aware of.
1. As a medical professional, with whom are you allowed to share a
patient's medical records according to the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act?
what part of the brain controls visual and auditory reflexes
The brain regions responsible for controlling visual and auditory reflexes are located in the midbrain. Specifically, two key structures play vital roles in these reflexes: the superior colliculus and the inferior colliculus.
The superior colliculus, situated in the midbrain's tectum, is primarily involved in visual reflexes. It receives input from the retina and processes visual information to generate reflexive eye movements, such as saccades and tracking movements, in response to visual stimuli.
On the other hand, the inferior colliculus, positioned in the midbrain's tegmentum, is primarily responsible for auditory reflexes. It receives auditory input from the ears and integrates this information to generate reflexive responses, including the orientation of the head and body towards sound sources or the startle reflex.
These midbrain structures serve as crucial relay stations, integrating sensory information and coordinating rapid reflexive responses to visual and auditory stimuli.
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you are alone in the back of the ambulance where you are ventilating an apneic patient. which of the following is the best way to manage the reassessment? question 15 options: a) continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment b) have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment c) stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment. d) stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment.
When you are alone in the back of the ambulance where you are ventilating an apneic patient. the best way to manage the reassessment is:
Option (b) have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment.
Reassessments are an important aspect of patient treatment, especially when dealing with severely sick patients, such as those who are apneic. By halting the ambulance every 5 minutes, you may immediately examine the patient's status and ensure that your treatment is still suitable. This allows you to make changes to your patient's care as needed to get the greatest potential outcome.
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