True. The facial bones play a critical role in protecting the delicate internal structures of the face, including the eyes and the upper respiratory tract.
The bones of the face are specially designed to provide a strong and stable framework that can withstand external forces and protect the underlying soft tissues.
The orbital bones, for example, form the protective bony socket that houses and protects the eyes. These bones are shaped in a way that helps to prevent injury to the eyes from impacts or sudden movements. Similarly, the bones of the nose and mouth form a protective barrier around the nasal and oral cavities, which are essential for breathing, eating, and speaking.
The facial bones also provide attachment points for muscles that are involved in facial expression, chewing, and other important functions. Without the structural support provided by these bones, the face would be much more vulnerable to injury and damage from external forces.
Overall, the facial bones are a crucial part of the body's overall defense against injury and illness. By providing a strong and stable framework for the face, these bones help to protect the vital internal structures of the eyes, nose, mouth, and upper respiratory tract, ensuring that these organs can function properly and remain healthy over time.
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The primary difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that active transport is the only one in which
A) [S]high → [S]low.
B) transporter proteins are required.
C) [S]low → [S]high.
D) the concentration gradient provides the necessary energy for movement.
The correct answer is B) transporter proteins are required. Facilitated diffusion and active transport are both mechanisms for moving molecules across a membrane, but they differ in the energy requirements and the use of transporter proteins.
Facilitated diffusion relies on a concentration gradient and uses transporter proteins to move molecules from high to low concentration, but it does not require energy input. In contrast, active transport moves molecules against their concentration gradient, which requires energy input from ATP hydrolysis or other sources, and it always involves transporter proteins to facilitate movement.
Therefore, the key difference between the two processes is the requirement of transporter proteins for active transport.
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PLEASE HELP ASAPPP. WOLL GUVE BRAINLIEST AND 5 STAR RATING
Answer:
Heat flows from your hand to a soda can
Explanation:
Heat flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.
Which best describes what happens to the atoms in a chemical reaction?
they are rearranged
many of them disappear
all of them form stronger bonds
all of them remain unchanged
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Atoms are rearranged.
In a chemical reaction, the bond between atoms in the reactant is broken and atoms rearrange to form new bonds to make products. Thus, option A is correct.
What is a chemical reaction?A chemical reaction is a process in which two or more reactants are combined to form products.
Substances used in a chemical reaction are either elements or compounds. No new atoms are formed during a chemical reaction. The product is however formed with the combination of the atoms of reactants.
The function of atoms in a chemical reaction includes forming a new compound with characteristics different from the reactant in terms of chemical properties
According to the law of conservation, atoms are neither created nor destroyed during chemical reactions. They are rearranged to form new bonds that make products. Thus, option A is correct.
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10. Below is the structure of octane, the major component of gasoline. What type(s) of
bond(s) is/are found in a molecule of octane? (Hint: Think of the shape of the molecule.)
Η
H
H
H
Η
Η Η
Η
Η
H-C-C-C-C-C-C-C-C-H
H
H
Η Η Η Η Η
Answer:
Covalent bond
Explanation:
The answer is covalent bond
A molecule of octane which is a component of gasoline contains covalent bonds.
Octane is a hydrocarbon compound, specifically an alkane, with the molecular formula C8H18. The structure you've provided illustrates the arrangement of carbon (C) and hydrogen (H) atoms in octane.
In octane, each carbon atom forms four single covalent bonds with other atoms (either carbon or hydrogen). Covalent bonds are formed when atoms share electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration. In the case of octane, carbon atoms share electrons with other carbon and hydrogen atoms to fill their valence electron shells, resulting in a stable and energetically favorable arrangement.
The structure of octane is a straight-chain alkane, with carbon atoms forming a chain and hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon atoms. The single covalent bonds between the atoms are represented by lines in the structural formula.
The shape of the molecule is determined by the arrangement of atoms and the types of bonds between them. In the case of octane, the single covalent bonds allow the carbon atoms to form a linear chain.
In conclusion, octane molecules are held together by covalent bonds, specifically single covalent bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms. This type of bonding contributes to the stability and structure of the octane molecule, making it a major component of gasoline and contributing to its combustible properties.
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based on the predictions of the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, which frequency of fire for florida forest management would maintain the highest levels of species diversity?
"Burning forest at intermediate frequency levels" is the frequency of fire for Florida forest management would maintain the highest levels of species diversity.
The highest diversity will be found at levels of intermediate disturbance, according to the intermediate disturbance theory. In connection to washing-induced disturbance, we assessed the species diversity, abundance, and species diversity of bacteria on human skin.
The frequency of fires within a certain area and time frame is another concise definition of fire frequency. In addition, fire frequency can be expressed mathematically as the average time between fires or the number of fires that occur during a given period of time.
For Florida forest management, burning forests at intermediate frequency levels would retain the maximum levels of species variety.
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A forest fire destroys an area. A small population of trees and a large population of birds are both affected. Which type
of limiting factor causes this?
O density dependent
O density independent
O population dependent
O population independent
Answer:
Density independent is the correct answer
The type of limiting factor that causes this scenario are density-independent factors, which is Option B, because they affect populations regardless of their size or density.
What are density-independent factors?Density-independent factors are environmental factors that affect populations regardless of their size or density. These factors can include natural disasters such as forest fires, floods, hurricanes, droughts, and other extreme weather events. Other examples of density-independent factors include habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change. In the scenario described, a forest fire destroyed an area, which can lead to the decline of both tree and bird populations. The fire could kill the trees and destroy their habitats, making it difficult for the surviving trees to grow or reproduce.
Hence, the type of limiting factor that causes this scenario are density-independent factors, which is Option B, because they affect populations regardless of their size or density.
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you measure changes in membrane potential in an on-center bipolar cell that is exposed to light in the center of its receptive field. what response would you expect to see?
The response would be Depolarization due to decreased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell. (Option 5)
Bipolar cells can be on or off-center. Bipolar cells get inputs from a bunch of photoreceptor cells that characterize the bipolar cell's responsive field. Glutamate is the neurotransmitter released by all photoreceptor cells. A bipolar cell that responds to glutamate by excitation will be excited when the light is off because glutamate release decreases when exposed to light. Because they are active when light is off in the center of their receptive field, these cells are referred to as off-center bipolar cells.
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(complete question)
You measure changes in membrane potential in an ON-center bipolar cell that is exposed to light in the center of its receptive field. What response would you expect to see?
Select one:
1. An action potential
2. Depolarization due to increased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell
3. Hyperpolarization due to decreased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell
4. Hyperpolarization due to increased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell
5. Depolarization due to decreased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell
What does epithelial tissue do? a. fills internal spaces, provides structural support, stores energy b. contracts to produce movement, includes skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle c. covers exposed surfaces, lines internal passageways and chambers, forms secretory glands d. conducts electrical impulses, carries information
The things that epithelial tissues do are covers exposed surfaces, lines internal passageways and chambers, forms secretory glands (Option C).
Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that is composed of one or more layers of cells that cover the body surfaces or line the cavities of the body. The cells in epithelial tissue are closely packed and form continuous sheets that can vary in thickness from a single layer of cells to many layers of cells.
The functions of epithelial tissue are:
It covers exposed surfaces and protects the body from physical and chemical damage.It lines internal passageways and chambers and protects the body from invading microorganisms.It forms secretory glands that secrete mucus, sweat, enzymes, and hormones.Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
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What is the main difference between Biomass, & Biofuel?
Biomass refers to all organic material that comes from plants and animals. The sources of it may include plant-derived materials that include forestry residues and urban wood waste. On the contrary, biofuel refers to the energy sources that come from biological materials such as plant material and animal wastes. Both of them are renewable resources. Biomass is burned to produce electricity and biofuels can be converted into liquid fuels which replace petrol from fossil fuel and diesel.
In prokaryotic cells, regulator proteins bind to a section of DNA called a/an
A)chromatin
B)repressor***
C)promoter
D)operon
“*** is my answer”
Answer:
C) Promoter
Explanation:
Gene expression is the process of synthesizing RNA from a gene (transcription), and subsequently, proteins from mRNA (translation). In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, gene expression is controlled at the transcriptional level, which is regulated by certain proteins called transcription factors. Transcription factors are proteins that regulate the synthesis of a protein from a gene.
Transcription factors regulate the progression of transcriptional process by binding to a regulatory region on the DNA sequence about to be transcribed called PROMOTER. The promoter region is a DNA sequence contained in the OPERON. This binding influences the binding of the transcription enzyme, RNA polymerase in order for transcription to start.
Answer:
I think the best option given the options above would be D) operator.
Through the process of photosynthesis, plants make their own food using energy from the Sun, carbon dioxide from the air, and water from the ground. This food can then be stored for later use, or energy from the food can be released by the plant through the process of cellular respiration. This energy is then used to perform other life processes.
What is another common use of the food produced by plants?
Please I will mark brainliest just please help
A.The food is converted entirely into heat energy.
B.The food is vaporized to help fuel the Sun.
C.The food is used by an animal when it consumes the plant.
D.The food is excreted as waste and is no longer useful.
Answer:
D is the correct amwsers
Answer:
the food is used by an animal when it consumes a plant
Explanation:
A frog has more offspring than can survive on available resources.
Which is this an example?
structural adaptation
overpopulation
variation in a population
artificial selection
A frog that has more offspring than can survive on available resources is an example of overpopulation.
WHAT IS OVERPOPULATION?Overpopulation is a process whereby there are more individuals of a population than the available resources.
According to this question, a frog has more offsprings than can survive on available resources. This means that there are more frogs than resources.
Therefore, frog that has more offspring than can survive on available resources is an example of overpopulation.
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A couple, both carriers of cystic fibrosis (CF) alleles, can decrease their odds of having a child with CF by performing an in vitro fertilization procedure and screening the embryo for the CF alleles. This process is called
The procedure can decrease the odds of having a child with CF by performing an in vitro fertilization procedure and screening the embryo for the CF alleles is referred to as preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
What diseases can be detected by preimplantation genetic diagnosis?Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is the testing of embryos or oocytes at the pre-implantation stage for genetic defects.
It can be used to diagnose cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs disease, Hemophilia, etc.
Thus, the procedure can decrease the odds of having a child with CF by performing an in vitro fertilization procedure and screening the embryo for the CF alleles is referred to as preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
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which would be the best genetic marker to select for the most number of recombinants and kill the f- strain?
The strain brought on by steric repulsion between A and B is then known as F-strain. B-strain is the strain that A's complexation causes in B due to changes in its geometry.
What is F strain?The C-N-C bond angle contracts when it forms a complex with an acid (A), and the B-strain is the result of the enhanced repulsive forces between the methyl groups (inside B). Steric repulsion between B and A is the F-strain.
A bacterium having a conjugative plasmid (such as the F-factor) incorporated into its chromosomal DNA is known as a high-frequency recombination cell (Hfr cell), sometimes known as a Hfr strain.
Homologous recombination is how the plasmid is incorporated into the cell's chromosome. Another name for a conjugative plasmid that can integrate chromosomes is an episome (a segment of DNA that can exist as a plasmid or become integrated into the chromosome).
Therefore, The strain brought on by steric repulsion between A and B is then known as F-strain. B-strain is the strain that A's complexation causes in B due to changes in its geometry.
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12. Which is NOT a natural cause of extinction?
A. Disease
B. Catastrophic events
C. Introduction of new species
D. Competition due to overpopulation
24. Which is NOT true about energy transformation?
A. Energy is essential to all organisms.
B. Food contains energy that is needed by all organism.
C. Heterotrophs feed on autotrophs and other heterotrophs to gain energy.
D. Autotrophs do not need energy because they can produce their own food.
23. Which is the CORRECT sequence of events in cellular respiration?
A. Glycolysis - fermentation - Krebs Cycle
B. Glycolysis - Krebs Cycle - Electron Transport
C. Krebs Cycle - Electron Transport - Glycolysis
D. Krebs Cycle - Glycolysis - Electron Transport
2. In humans there are four types of blood; type A, type B, type AB and type O. A person with a genotype of IaIa or Iai will have blood type_____?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
4. A couple has four children, one son and three daughters. What is the chance that the fifth child will be a daughter?
A. ¼
B. ½
C. ¾
D. 1/5
22. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down_______.
A. ATP
B. water
C. carbon dioxide
D. food molecules
5. A man is colorblind but there is no history of this disorder in his wife’s family. What is the chance that their son is color
blind?
A. 0
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%
25. Which BEST summarizes the process of respiration?
A. Water + Carbon Dioxide ( light) sugar + oxygen
B. Sugar + Oxygen (enzymes) water+ carbon dioxide +energy
C. Water + Sugar ( light ) carbon dioxide + oxygen
D. Oxygen + Water (enzymes) sugar + carbon dioxide + energy
1. A father with blood type AB and a mother with blood type O will probably produce offspring with a blood type ___. *
A. A
B. B
C. A or B
D.AB or O
6. What is a sex- linked trait that results in the inability to have normal blood clotting?
A. baldness
B. color blindness
C. diabetes
D. hemophilia
11. What causes species extinction?
A. Pollution and reforestation
B. Reforestation and carbon emission
C. climate change and over consumption
D. conservation and consume
18. The pigment molecules responsible for photosynthesis are located in the _______? *
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm of the cell
C. Stroma of the chloroplasts
D. Thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts
13. Which part of a leaf contains most of the chloroplasts?
A. Lower epidermis
B. Palisade mesophyll
C. Spongy mesophyll
D. Upper epidermis
19. At optimum light intensity, which atmospheric gas most directly influences the rate of photosynthesis?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Sulfur
D. Carbon Dioxide
14. What part of the leaf is this tiny opening in the lower epidermis which makes it rough and responsible for the entrance and exit of gases in plants?
A. xylem
B. phloem
C. stomata
D. guard cells
16. In which part of the chloroplast does light reactions of photosynthesis takes place?
A. Grana
B. Stroma
C. Inner membrane
D. Outer membrane
17. Which is NOT needed to make food in plants?
A. Flower
B. Sunlight
C. Chlorophyll
D. Carbon Dioxid
8. Color-blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. If a normal woman, carrier of the gene marries a man with normal color vision. What would be the expected phenotype of their children with reference to color-blindness?
A. All color-blind
B. 2 carriers, 2 color-blind
C. 1 normal, 3 carriers
D. 2 normal, 1 carrier, 1 color-blind
3. Blood type O has both antibodies A and antibodies B in the plasma but has no antigen on its erythrocytes or red blood cells. That is why Blood Type O is considered UNIVERSAL______.
A. Blood
B. Donor
C. Marker
D. Recipient
7. Melvin’s thinning hair is like that of his father. This characteristic of baldness is due to
A. multiple alleles
B. sex-linked
C. sex-influenced
D. sex-limited
Answer:
A bowling ball weighs 15 pounds on Earth and weighs 4 pounds on the planet Saturn. You could determine a 100–pound earthling's weight on Saturn using the proportion:
Explanation:
a.
StartFraction 15 Over 4 EndFraction = StartFraction b Over 100 EndFraction
c.
StartFraction 4 Over 15 EndFraction = StartFraction 100 Over b EndFraction
b.
StartFraction 15 Over 4 EndFraction = 100 Over b EndFraction
d.
either a or c
Please help its a final
Answer:
bit complicate uno
A scientific idea tested by multiple scientists and supported by multiple lines of tested
factual evidence is a...
Answer:
Theory
Explanation:
A well tested scientific idea, supported by multiple lines of tested factual evidence is a theory.
In general which group of stars have the Brightest Luminosity? Select one: a. Supergiants b. Giants c. Main sequence d. White dwarfs
Answer:
Hello!
I think your answer should be A. SUPERGIANTS!
Explanation:
HOPE THIS HELPS!
itsMATT04
Answer:
A
Explanation:
got it correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true about stage 3 of the birthing process.
A. The placenta and umbilical cord are delivered.
B. It lasts approximately 5 to 10 minutes.
C. Intense contractions occur.
D. The placenta remains intact.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
OA
B
C
OD
The statements that is not true about stage 3 of the birthing process is that there C. Intense contractions occur.
What is the birthing process?It involves four stages of labor: the cervix shrinking and opening during the first stage, the baby's descent and birth during the second, the placenta being delivered during the third, and the mother and child recovering during the fourth stage, known as the postpartum.
let's quickly review the three stages of labor. True labor contractions begin the first stage, which concludes when the cervix is fully effaced and dilated. The baby is born at the conclusion of the second stage, which is the pushing period. The placenta is delivered to complete the third stage.
Therefore, option C is correct.
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which lobe of the brain contains the auditory cortex and also processes information about smells?
The auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe of the brain, which also processes information regarding smells.
The temporal lobe is a region of the brain that recognizes speech and helps you understand what others are saying to you. It is also good for their sense of smell. This is also the location of your short-term memory. There are two temporal lobes in your head, one behind each ear. They receive messages from your ears, allowing you to recognize sound & messages. The brain is a complicated organ that is protected by the skull.
It regulates everything in the body, including crucial activities like breathing and pulse. The body would be unable to operate without the brain. The skull protects the brain, which is exceedingly sensitive. It is encased in a fluid known as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). CSF's primary responsibilities are to protect the brain (as a shock absorber), to transport nutrients to the brain, and to eliminate waste from it.
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Can someone help I’ve been stuck at this question for the past 10 minutes
A _____ extinction occurs when many species go extinct in a relatively short period of time
Answer:
I think it's
A mass extinction occurs when many species go extinct in a relatively short period of time.
Explanation:
Mass extinction is usually defined as a loss of about three-quarters of all species in existence across the entire Earth over a “short” geological period of time. Hence, I think the answer is correct.
Answer:
The correct answer is Mass
What structure do Tetrahymena use to move?
The structure that Tetrahymena uses to move is the cilia.
Tetrahymena, a genus of single-celled ciliates, use cilia, a thin, hair-like structure that protrude from the surface of the cell, to move.
Cilia beat in coordinated waves, creating a current that propels the cell forward. Cilia are also used by other types of cells, such as the epithelial cells lining the respiratory and digestive tracts, to move mucus and other substances.
In Tetrahymena, the cilia are arranged in tightly packed rows along the surface of the cell, and they beat in a synchronized manner to propel the cell through the water. This movement allows Tetrahymena to find food, escape from predators, and navigate their aquatic environment.
In addition to movement, cilia are also involved in other functions such as sensation and cellular signaling.
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It is commonly believed that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F. You are not entirely convinced. You believe that it is not 98.6∘F. You collected data using 54 healthy people and found that they had a mean body temperature of 98.26∘F with a standard deviation of 1.16∘F. Use a 0.05 significance level to test the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. a) Identify the null and alternative hypotheses? H0: ?
H1: ? b) What type of hypothesis test should you conduct (left-, right-, or two-tailed)? i. left-tailed ii. right-tailed
iii. two-tailed c) Identify the appropriate significance level. d) Calculate your test statistic. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to two decimal places. e) Calculate your p-value. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to four decimal places. f) Do you reject the null hypothesis? 1. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
2. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. 3. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level. 4. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. g) Select the statement below that best represents the conclusion that can be made. 1. There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 2. There is not sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 3. The sample data support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
4. There is not sufficient sample evidence to support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
The conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
What is the conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult?a) Null Hypothesis (H0): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F.
Alternative Hypothesis (H1): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
b) The hypothesis test should be two-tailed.
c) The appropriate significance level is 0.05.
d) The test statistic is calculated using the formula: (sample mean - hypothesized mean) / (sample standard deviation / sqrt(sample size)). The result is -5.86.
e) The p-value is calculated by finding the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value under the null hypothesis. The p-value is 0.0000.
f) We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
g) The phrase "There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6F" best summarises the finding.
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4
Select the correct answer.
A family has a Y-linked disease that affects the father. What is the chance of a male offspring inheriting the same disease?
OA. 100%
OB. 50%
OC. 25%
O D. 0%
Answer: the answer is A. 100%
Explanation:
i hope this helps you
A granite monument has a volume of 25,365.4 cm3 The density of granite is 2.7 g/cm3. Use this information to
calculate the mass of the monument to the nearest tenth.
The mass of the granite monument is
1 point
Earth's layers can be described by either chemical composition or by
physical properties. Going out from the center of the earth, the layers of
earth as described by their chemical composition are: *
Core, Mantle, Crust
Crust, Mantle, Core
O Inner Core, Outer Core, Mesosphere, Asthenosphere, Lithosphere
Answer:
Core, Mantle, Crust
Explanation:
The layers of the earth are the inner core, the outer core, the mantle, and the crust.
Plz help! In a density-dependent population, a decrease in which of the following will most likely cause an increase in birthrate?
Carrying capacity
Death rate
Emigration
Immigration
plz don't put link or ill report
In a density-dependent population, a decrease in the death rate will most likely cause an increase in birthrate. It is because a lower death rate means that more individuals are surviving, which can lead to an increase in the number of individuals reproducing, ultimately resulting in a higher birthrate. The correct option is B.
What is a density-dependent population?As we know that a population's birthrate tends to increase if there is a decrease in death rate, which also results in a decrease in carrying capacity.
Also, a density-dependent population is a population where the death rate increases and birthrate decreases with increasing population density, and vice versa. So, a decrease in the death rate of a density-dependent population will most likely cause an increase in the birthrate.
A density-dependent population is a population where the death rate increases and birthrate decreases with increasing population density, and vice versa. A decrease in the death rate of a density-dependent population will most likely cause an increase in the birthrate.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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A silent mutation is one in which:
C. The nucleotide sequencer does not change wether it is the Original DNA and Mutation DNA
A. The Amino Acid chain is not changed even though the nucleotides sequence on the Original
DNA is different from the Mutation DNA.
O B. The Amino Acid chain is different when produced by the Mutation DNA rather than the
Original DNA.
O D. The Mutation mRNA is different that the Original mRNA
Amy run hard during a race. The level of carbon dioxide in her bloodtream increae, becoming higher than normal. — Decribe one way Amy' body i likely to repond. — Explain how thi repone will help to lower level of carbon dioxide in her bloodtream
Amy runs hard during a race. Carbon dioxide levels in her bloodstream rise, becoming higher than normal. Any change in an organism's environment that causes the organism to react.
In physiology, a stimulus is a detectable change in the physical or chemical structure of an organism's internal or external environment. The ability of an organism or organ to detect external stimuli, so that an appropriate reaction can be made, is called excitability sensitivity.He is hungry, so he eats something. A rabbit is scared and runs away. You're cold so you put on a jacket. External stimuli include touch and pain, vision, smell, taste, sound, and balance balance. These sensory stimuli are activated by external changes. Pain is the stimulus that can provoke a greater response from the organism. Homeostasis is the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite a changing external environment. Homeostasis is maintained primarily through negative feedback, when a response to a stimulus keeps a variable close to a set value.
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Drag each circle to the correct location on the image. Each circle can be used more than once, but not all circles will be used.
Geologists have observed that a portion of Africa is breaking away from the main continent. This is happening because the African Plate is in the process of splitting up into two parts. Scientists have named the two new tectonic plates the Nubian Plate and Somalian Plate. Both of these plates are not only moving away from each other but also away from the Arabian Plate.
Based on this information, determine the type of boundaries these two new plates would share with each other and the Arabian Plate.
In divergent boundaries, plates separate from each other and new crust is created between them. The boundary these two new plates would share with each other and the Arabian Plate is the divergent boundary.
What are the three types of boundaries?I. Divergent
A new crust is created by the rising molten materials coming from the mantle.
Two plates separate, and a stream of hot material creates a new seabed between them. It occurs in an expansion of the sea bottom.
As old plates get separated, new and young crust instantaneously gets formed. The emerging mantle occupies the space left by the separation of the two plates.
II. Convergent.
When two plates move forward to each other, they end up colliding and causing the deformation of one or both plates.
Three possible collisions might occur,
• Two oceanic plates might collide ⇒ subduction
• Two continental plates might collide ⇒ obduction
• Oceanic plate and continental plates collide ⇒ Subduction
III. Transforming.
The plates slide laterally with each other, and they are usually called faults.
It is associated, in general, with the oceanic ridge, although it might also occur on the continental plate.
In the exposed example, the African plate is splitting up into two parts, meaning these two parts are separating from each other. A new seabed is created between the Nubian Plate and Somalian Plate.
Since these plates are also separating from the Arabian Plate, we can also assume a new seabed is emerging between them.
The boundary these two new plates would share with each other and the Arabian Plate is the divergent boundary. Plates are separating from each other. They are not converging nor sliding.
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Based on the information given, the two new plates (Nubian Plate and Somalian Plate) are moving away from each other, which suggests that they share a divergent boundary. Additionally, both plates are also moving away from the Arabian Plate, which suggests that they share another divergent boundary with the Arabian Plate. Therefore, both the Nubian Plate and Somalian Plate share a divergent boundary with each other and the Arabian Plate.