the nurse-manager is talking to a new nurse who is thinking about resigning before orientation to the unit is over. the nurse-manager explains that reality shock after graduation is common. which explanation should the nurse-manager use to best describe reality shock to the new nurse?
Answers
The explanation which the nurse-manager should use to best describe reality shock to the new nurse is "A period of role adjustment from school into the work force."
Nurse managers are accountable for managing human and monetary resources; guaranteeing patient and workers satisfaction; maintaining a secure setting for workers, patients, and visitors; guaranteeing standards and quality of care are maintained; and orienting the unit's goals with the hospital's strategic goals.
Role adjustment is necessary for nurses as a result of She was having the ability to comfort and support people that are unwell, vulnerable, or scared, is that the key to became a in nurse. She should take the time to form her patients feel needed, supported, and be there as an acquaintance.
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Related Questions
In order from less complex to complex to more complex, which level of organization is directly after tissue?
-Organ
-Organ System
-Organism
-Organelle
Answers
Answer:
A.Organ
Explanation:
The level of organization that is directly after the tissue level (from less complex to more complex) is Organ.
What are organization levels?In biology, the organization levels refer to the arrangement of specialized structures.
A cell is the basic unit of all living forms, which is composed of organelles in eukaryotic organisms.A tissue is a group of specialized cells that perform a particular function, whereas an organ is a group of tissues organized to play specific activities in the body.In conclusion, the level of organization that is directly after the tissue level (from less complex to more complex) is Organ.
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a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart
Answer:
C. respiratory, asthma
Explanation:
Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.
Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.
True OR False:
cones sense color and intensity of light, rods only sense color
Answers
What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing
Answers
Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.
What is debriefing?Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.
Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.
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PEP (post-exposure prophylaxis) means taking antiretroviral medicines (ART) after being potentially exposed to HIV to prevent becoming infected.
PEP should be used only in emergency situations and must be started within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV. If you think you’ve recently been exposed to HIV during sex or through sharing needles and works to prepare drugs or if you’ve been sexually assaulted, talk to your health care provider or an emergency room doctor about PEP right away.
–Centers for Disease Control, 2016
Who may need to take antiretroviral medicines?
When is PEP most effective?
Answers
The answers include the following:
The people who may need to take antiretroviral medicines are those who have been exposed or infected with HIV.PEP most effective within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV.What is PEP?This is known as post-exposure prophylaxis and is usually taken within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV.
The exposure may be as a result of unprotected sex or sharing of needles and taking PEP within the time frame prevents the infection from occurring thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answers
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
During inflammation, fluid will passively diffuse out of blood vessels into the nearby infected tissue. This implies all of the following EXCEPT:
a. The osmolarity of the fluid surrounding infected tissues is higher than the plasma.
b. The surrounding tissue will swell with excessive fluids.
c. Nearby capillaries have become more permeable.
d. B-lymphocyte will differentiate to become plasma cells.
Answers
Answer: D
Explanation:
d. instruct nap to notify you immediately if the insertion site appears swollen. 4. what is the best way to prevent infection and conserve resources when terminating an iv piggyback medication infusion in a patient who also has a primary fluid infusion? a. remove the tubing from the primary line y-site port, and cap the end. b. leave both the piggyback tubing and the bag attached to the primary line y-site port until the next scheduled dose. c. place an unopened secondary setup at the bedside, and discard the used one. d. change both the primary and secondary tubing upon terminating the piggyback infusion. 5. which nursing intervention is most important in ensuring safe infusion of a medication delivered by iv piggyback through a saline lock? a. use the most proximal insertion port on the primary tubing. b. hang the piggyback solution higher than the primary infusion solution. c. use a pump to regulate the infusion rate of the piggyback medication.
Answers
The best way to prevent infection and conserve resources when terminating an IV piggyback medication infusion in a patient who also has a primary fluid infusion is option A.
Which nursing intervention is most important in ensuring?Removing the tubing from the primary line Y-site port and capping the end will prevent contamination and conserve resources by allowing the remaining primary fluid infusion to continue without interruption.The nursing intervention that is most important in ensuring safe infusion of a medication delivered by IV piggyback through a saline lock is option C. Using a pump to regulate the infusion rate of the piggyback medication will ensure that the medication is infused at the correct rate and prevent complications such as medication overload or underdose. Option A and B are also important, but option C is the most crucial as it ensures the safety of the patient.To learn more about piggyback medication refer to:
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A second degree burn of a person. years of age should be seen by a healthcare provider
Answers
Answer:
It would be the age 55 (if this is a test question). If not, any age would be appropriate!
Hope this helps!
What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.
Answers
Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.
The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:
Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.
Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.
In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.
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A 12 year old with known sickle cell disease and autism has undergone an inguinal hernia repair. the perianesthesia nurse is aware that the main surgical risk to this patient is?
Answers
Answer: 1. hypoxia from anesthesia.
Domain: Physiological Needs
Content Area: Stability of Respiratory System
Reference: Hockenberry, M., Wilson, D. Wong's Nursing Care of Infants and Children. 10th Ed. CV. Mosby, 2015. pg 1348.
Bebe Moore Campbell information
Answers
Answer:
Bebe Moore Campbell was an Author, Journalist, and Teacher who wanted people to know more about the mental health needs of the African American Community.
Just a short answer, but hopefully that helps...
Answer:
Bebe Moore Campbell, was an American author, journalist and teacher. Campbell was the author of three New York Times bestsellers: Brothers and Sisters, Singing in the Comeback Choir, and What You Owe Me, which was also a Los Angeles Times "Best Book of 2001". Her other works include the novel Your Blues Ain't Like Mine, which was a New York Times Notable Book of the Year and the winner of the NAACP Image Award for Literature; her memoir, Sweet Summer: Growing Up With and Without My Dad; and her first nonfiction book, Successful Women, Angry Men: Backlash in the Two-Career Marriage. Her essays, articles, and excerpts appear in many anthologies.
Explanation:
A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Answers
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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Explain how you think JIT techniques can be used to meet the
needs of patients in the maternity ward for a variety of supplies,
in just the right quantity at just the right time.
Answers
JIT techniques enable the maternity ward to have the right quantity of supplies at the right time. This ensures that the needs of patients are met efficiently, reducing the risk of shortages and improving patient care.
JIT (Just-in-Time) techniques can be effectively used to meet the needs of patients in the maternity ward by ensuring a timely and accurate supply of necessary items. By implementing JIT, the hospital can maintain an inventory system that is closely aligned with the demand for supplies in the maternity ward.
Firstly, JIT techniques involve closely monitoring the consumption patterns of supplies in the maternity ward. This includes tracking the frequency of use and the quantity of each item used. By analyzing this data, the hospital can identify the optimal reorder points for each supply item. This ensures that supplies are ordered and delivered just in time before they run out, minimizing the risk of shortages.
Additionally, JIT techniques can be used to establish strong relationships with suppliers. By partnering with reliable suppliers, the hospital can ensure a smooth and efficient supply chain. This includes establishing clear communication channels and setting up streamlined processes for ordering and delivery.
Furthermore, JIT techniques also encourage effective inventory management practices. This includes storing supplies in a well-organized manner, minimizing excess inventory, and adopting a first-in, first-out (FIFO) approach. This helps to prevent wastage and ensures that supplies are used before their expiration dates.
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Which route of administration
can be used for both dialysis as
well as chemotherapy and
antibiotics?
HOTEUR
SHOW CHARACTER HINT
Intrathecal
Intradermal
Subcutaneous
Intraperitoneal
Intramuscular (IM).
Pharmacy
Answers
Answer: Sometimes your doctor may give you a course of antibiotics during your chemotherapy to help fight off an infection or stop you getting one.
Explanation:
Which sentences make correct use of adverbs and adjectives? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. b. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. c. Tom’s sales pitch was received good. d. Tom was really pleased with his results.
Answers
The sentences that make correct use of adverbs and adjectives are as follows:option a ) Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. option b) Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. option d) Tom was really pleased with his results.
The correct use of the adverbs and adjectives are as follows:The sentence “Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table” uses the adjective "highest" to describe Alma’s score. In this sentence, the adjective is modifying the noun "score".
The sentence “Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s” uses the adverb "enthusiastically" to modify the verb "responded". The sentence compares Alma’s customer response with that of Tom’s.The sentence “Tom was really pleased with his results” uses the adverb "really" to modify the adjective "pleased".
The adverb "really" is used to intensify the meaning of the adjective "pleased". Hence the correct sentences are:A. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table.B. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s.D. Tom was really pleased with his results.
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2. Identify the four types of open wounds
Answers
Answer:
Abrasion, Laceration, Puncture, Avulsion
Explanation:
Abrasion: when the skin rubs or scrapes on a rough surface, can possibly cause bleeding and, if severe enough, can cause an avulsion
Laceration: deep cut or tear in the skin, it is often caused by shrapnel of any kind, such as of a piece of glass or a fragmenting object such as a hollow-point bullet or a shotgun shell
Puncture: a hole caused by a sharp pointy object such as a nail, needle, or a knife.
Avulsion: complete tearing away of the skin or tissue, often called degloving. These injuries are usually the most life-threatening.
when preforming a us exam on a patient with a verry massive and thick layer of adipose tissue what arrtificat pccurs and what happens
Answers
When performing an ultrasound exam on a patient with a very massive and thick layer of adipose tissue, several artifacts can occur due to the increased attenuation and scattering of the sound waves. These artifacts can include shadowing, acoustic enhancement, and decreased resolution. Additionally, it may be more difficult to visualize deep structures or organs due to the increased distance the sound waves need to travel through the adipose tissue layer. It is important for the sonographer to adjust their settings and technique to account for the adipose tissue thickness and potential artifacts in order to obtain an accurate and complete exam.
When performing a US (ultrasound) exam on a patient with a very massive and thick layer of adipose tissue, the artifact that occurs is attenuation. Attenuation happens when the ultrasound waves are absorbed and scattered by the adipose tissue, resulting in a weaker signal reaching the deeper structures. This can cause difficulty in visualizing the underlying organs and tissues, leading to a decrease in image quality and diagnostic accuracy. To overcome this issue, it might be necessary to adjust the ultrasound settings, use a lower frequency transducer, or consider alternative imaging methods.
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When performing an ultrasound exam on a patient with a very thick and massive layer of adipose tissue, it can result in attenuation artifact. Attenuation artifact occurs due to the absorption, reflection, and scattering of the ultrasound waves as they travel through the tissue.
In patients with high levels of adipose tissue, the ultrasound waves have to travel through a lot of tissue, which causes the attenuation artifact. Attenuation can cause reduced penetration of the ultrasound waves into deeper tissues, resulting in reduced image quality and difficulty in visualizing structures.
Additionally, the adipose tissue can also reflect the ultrasound waves, resulting in an increase in the number of echoes received by the transducer. This can cause shadowing, which can obscure deeper structures and make interpretation of the images more challenging.
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at 0700 (7 am) the health care provider has ordered the nurse to begin an iv infusion and has ordered the client to receive 125 ml/hr of iv fluid. at what time will the nurse be prepared to hang the next liter of iv fluid?
Answers
The correct option is B, that is, the nurse will be prepared to hang the next liter of IV-fluid at 1500 (3 PM) after the healthcare provider ordered the nurse to start IV-fluid of 125 ml/hr.
The following equation can be used to determine how long it will take the IV to finish before it runs out:
Time (hours) = Volume (ml) x Drip Rate (ml/hour)
At the beginning, the volume of the IV-fluid
1500 hours = Volume x 125 ml/hour
Volume = 1500/125
Volume = 12 ml
But the next IV-fluid will be hanged at
Time (hours) = Volume (ml) x Drip Rate (ml/hour)
Time = 12 x 125
Time = 1500 hours
Thus, at 1500 hours or 3 PM, the nurse will prepare the next IV-fluid.
The administration of delivering nutrients and water directly into the circulation for instantaneous absorption and usage by the body is known as IV therapy, sometimes known as intravenous therapy.
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The complete question is:
At 0700 (7 AM) the health care provider has ordered the nurse to begin an IV infusion and has ordered the client to receive 125 mL/hr of IV fluid. At what time will the nurse be prepared to hang the next liter of IV fluid?
A. 2100 (8 PM)
B. 1500 (3 PM)
C. 1300 (1 PM)
D. 1100 (11 AM)
The urinary system is composed of the ?
Answers
Answer:
The organs of the urinary system include the kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder and urethra.
Explanation: The body takes nutrients from food and converts them to energy.
Help me?! Thanks!!!!!!
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
What do you need help with. I cant see the photo or videos which ever one you put up cause it says it blocked.David, a CMA (AAMA), obtains Mr. Washington’s vital signs after he has escorted him to the examination room. David notes Mr. Washington’s vital signs as follows: Wt: 235 lbs, T: 97.6°F, P: 94 bpm, rapid and bounding, BP: 148/92. What can you ascertain from these findings? Mr. Washington is an African American. How does this impact his health status relating to cardiovascular system disorders? What might Dr. Miller suggest to help Mr. Washington take control of his blood pressure?
Answers
According to the BP values that Mr. Washington presents, we can say that he is showing hypertension.
Accordingly, we can answer the questions shown above, as follows:
BP is the acronym for blood pressure and is considered normal when it presents values lower than 140/90 mmHg. Mr. Washington is showing 148/92 mmHg of blood pressure, which shows that he is hypertensive, that is, he is showing blood pressure above normalAfrican American people like Mr. Washington are more likely to develop hypertension because they are more sensitive to sodium and can accumulate this element in the body more intensely than white people.To help Mr. Washington control blood pressure, the doctor should recommend physical exercise, increased water intake, and a diet free of sodium and fat.More information:
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whats the consistency of sperm
Answers
Quick Check
What does a Freudian Slip reveal?
Answers
Answer:
Freudian slips are those embarrassing tell-tale slips of the tongue that reveal our innermost thoughts. They are the verbal mistakes that are linked to our unconscious feelings. Even the rich and famous are vulnerable to Freudian slips.
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Based on your understanding of the scenario, what problems did the patient have? Check all that apply.
severe headache
degenerative neurological disorder
rapid heartbeat
upset stomach
confusion
enlarged heart
Answers
Answer:
B, C and F
Explanation:
Answer:
degenerative neurological disorder
rapid heartbeat
enlarged heart
or B,C,F!
Hope this helped;)
2. Disposable gloves are a precaution used to protect first
aid providers from
bodily fluids.
A) persistent
B) contaminated
C) messy
Answers
the clinician has recommended that an adolescent take an arranged interruption from the prescribed methylphenidate therapy. what assessments should the nurse focus on to provide data to support the need for this intervention? select all that apply.
Answers
The assessments that the nurse should focus on to provide data to support the need for an arranged interruption from prescribed methylphenidate therapy in an adolescent are:
A. Sleep patterns and duration
C. Appetite and weight levels
D. Mood and behavior changes
These assessments are important because methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and can have potential side effects on these areas. The nurse should monitor the adolescent's sleep patterns and duration, appetite and weight levels, and mood and behavior changes to identify any possible adverse effects of the medication.
Assessing attention and concentration levels and academic performance may not be as useful in supporting the need for an arranged interruption from methylphenidate therapy, as the medication is prescribed to improve these areas in individuals with ADHD.
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Correct form of question would be:
the clinician has recommended that an adolescent take an arranged interruption from the prescribed methylphenidate therapy. what assessments should the nurse focus on to provide data to support the need for this intervention? select all that apply.
A. Sleep patterns and duration
B. Attention and concentration levels
C. Appetite and weight levels
D. Mood and behavior changes
E. Academic performance
During pregnancy, many women are advised to avoid hot temperatures, like saunas or heating pads, as this can cause (among other things) problems with the development and closing of the spinal cord. Thus, high temperatures are likely to affect:
Answers
You are providing care to a patron who started choking on some food. The victim becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do first
Answers
The victim becomes unresponsive than firstly you should lower the victim to the ground and begin CPR starting with chest compressions.
Choking is a true medical emergency that requires fast, appropriate action by anyone available to save a choking person's life. Choking can beget a simple coughing fit, but complete blockage of the airway may lead to death.
Cardiopulmonary reanimation (CPR) is an exigency procedure conforming of casket condensing frequently combined with artificial ventilation in an trouble to manually save complete brain function until farther measures are taken to restore robotic blood rotation and breathing in a person who's in cardiac arrest.
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List 3 situations that bring about ethical dilemmas in
medicine.
Answers
Three situations that bring about ethical dilemmas in medicine are end-of-life decisions, allocation of scarce resources, and informed consent.
End-of-life decisions are situations where healthcare providers must decide whether to continue life-sustaining treatments or to withdraw them, such as in cases where a patient is terminally ill or in a persistent vegetative state. Deciding when to withdraw life-sustaining treatment can be difficult, as healthcare providers must consider the ethical implications of prolonging life at the expense of suffering. They must also consider the wishes of the patient, family, and medical team when making these decisions.
Allocation of scarce resources is another situation where ethical dilemmas can arise. In times of crisis or disaster, medical resources such as hospital beds, ventilators, and personal protective equipment (PPE) may be in short supply. Healthcare providers must make difficult decisions regarding who receives these resources and who does not. This can create ethical dilemmas as healthcare providers must balance the principles of justice and beneficence while also considering the best interests of each individual patient.
Finally, informed consent is a situation where patients must make decisions regarding their medical care. Informed consent requires that patients be provided with all the information necessary to make a decision about their medical care. This includes the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment. Informed consent can be challenging when patients are unable to make decisions due to their medical condition, language barriers, or cognitive impairment. Healthcare providers must take extra care to ensure that patients understand their medical options and that their decisions are respected.
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