The preparticipation physical should be performed at least six weeks before conditioning and training begin.
Ideally, the PPE, also known as the sports physical, will be completed by the athlete's primary care physician during the health supervision session in the athlete's medical home. If this isn't possible, the PPE should be carried out at least six weeks before to the first preseason workout to give the doctor time to assess the player and treat any conditions that were discovered.
The American College of Sports Medicine, American Medical Society for Sports Medicine, American Orthopaedic Society for Sports Medicine, and the American Osteopathic Academy of Sports Medicine all contributed to the development of the PPE. The National Federation of State High School Associations and the National Athletic Trainers' Association both support it.
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What does a vaccine do to your body to protect you?
Client safety goals set by The Joint Commission for home care
These client safety goals established by The Joint Commission for home care aim to ensure the delivery of safe and high-quality care in the home setting. By focusing on accurate identification, effective communication, medication safety, infection control, and fall prevention, home care providers can help promote the well-being and safety of their patients.
The Joint Commission is an independent, non-profit organization that sets standards and accredits healthcare organizations in the United States. When it comes to home care, The Joint Commission has established client safety goals to ensure the well-being of patients receiving care in their own homes.
1. Identification: One of the client safety goals set by The Joint Commission for home care is the accurate identification of patients. This means that home care providers should have processes in place to correctly identify the patient before providing any care or treatment. For example, they may use unique identifiers such as full name, date of birth, or medical record number to avoid any mix-ups or errors.
2. Communication: Effective communication is crucial in home care settings to prevent misunderstandings and improve patient safety. The Joint Commission emphasizes the importance of clear and timely communication among the healthcare team members, including the patient and their family. This can involve sharing important information about the patient's condition, treatment plans, medications, and any changes in their health status.
3. Medication safety: Another client safety goal focuses on medication safety. Home care providers must ensure that medications are properly prescribed, administered, and monitored to prevent medication errors. This may involve verifying medication dosages, educating patients on proper usage, and regularly reviewing medication regimens for potential interactions or adverse effects.
4. Infection control: Infection prevention is critical in home care to minimize the risk of healthcare-associated infections. The Joint Commission emphasizes the importance of implementing infection control practices, such as proper hand hygiene, appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and regular cleaning and disinfection of equipment and surfaces. Home care providers should also educate patients and their families about infection prevention measures they can follow.
5. Fall prevention: The risk of falls is a significant concern for patients receiving home care. The Joint Commission sets a client safety goal to reduce the risk of falls and fall-related injuries. Home care providers should assess the patient's fall risk, implement appropriate interventions such as removing hazards, installing grab bars, and providing assistive devices, and educate patients and their families about fall prevention strategies.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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for which situation is palliative care appropriate?
Answer: Palliative care is a resource for anyone living with a serious illness, such as heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, cancer, dementia, Parkinson's disease, and many others. Palliative care can be helpful at any stage of illness and is best provided soon after a person is diagnosed.
Explanation:
Palliative care is appropriate in a situation in which people with serious illnesses are looking for relief from symptoms such as pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, constipation, nausea, loss of appetite, and difficulty sleeping.
Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of the illness, with the goal of improving the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care can be provided at any stage of an illness and can be used alongside other treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. It can also be used to manage chronic conditions, such as heart disease, lung disease, or dementia. Other than that, palliative care can also provide psychological, social, and spiritual support to the patient and their family.
Overall, palliative care is appropriate for any situation in which a patient needs support in managing the physical, emotional, and spiritual aspects of their illness.
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B r a i n l y e s t ?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Answer:pogchamp am i right
Explanation:
1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
They do not necessarily have to be physicians, but they must have the expertise to assess subject safety.
2. FALSE. Any communication with study participants, including postcards, must be reviewed by the IRB to ensure it is ethical and does not coerce or unduly influence participants.
3. TRUE. A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB to avoid potential conflicts of interest.
4. TRUE. An expedited review can be conducted by a distinct member of the IRB if the proposed change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. The regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but more frequent reviews may be required depending on the level of risk involved in the study.
It is the responsibility of the IRB to determine the appropriate frequency of review based on the risks and benefits of the study.
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An injury to the surface of the skin caused by trauma, such as scratching or abrasions is called a(an)
Answer:
ABRASION. Scraping, or rubbing away of a surface, such. as skin, by friction. Abrasion may be the result of trauma, such as a skinned.
Explanation:
Match each of the characteristics/descriptions listed below to the appropriate phylum/phyla. Some characteristics will match with more than one phylum. All the options will be used at least once.
Characteristics/Descriptions:
Protostome
Triploblastic
Coelom
Molts when grows
No circulatory system
Diploblastic
Deuterostome
Some members are marine
Phylum/Phyla:
Arthropoda
Echinodermata
Ctenophora
The phylum/phyla that match the given characteristics and descriptions are Arthropoda and Echinodermata.
Which phylum/phyla match the given characteristics and descriptions?The characteristics/descriptions can be matched with the following phylum/phyla:
Protostome: ArthropodaTriploblastic: Arthropoda, EchinodermataCoelom: Arthropoda, Echinodermata Molts when grows: ArthropodaNo circulatory system: Echinodermata Diploblastic: Echinodermata Deuterostome: EchinodermataSome members are marine: Arthropoda, EchinodermataArthropoda and Echinodermata are the phyla that match the given characteristics/descriptions. Arthropoda includes organisms like insects, spiders, and crustaceans, while Echinodermata includes organisms like starfish and sea urchins.
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however, there is no routine monitoring of this food item to check the residue level of organochlorines such as lindane and atrazine even though they are toxic.(true/false)
True. Despite the toxicity of organochlorines such as lindane and atrazine, there is no routine monitoring of their residue levels in certain food items.
This lack of monitoring can lead to potential health risks for consumers who unknowingly consume these harmful chemicals. It is important for regulatory agencies to prioritize monitoring and testing of food items to ensure the safety of the food supply. Additionally, consumers can take steps to reduce their exposure to these chemicals by choosing organic or locally grown foods, which are less likely to contain high levels of pesticide residue.
To answer your question, "however, there is no routine monitoring of this food item to check the residue level of organochlorines such as lindane and atrazine even though they are toxic (true/false)": This statement can be true or false depending on the specific food item and the country or region's regulations on food safety monitoring. Some countries may have strict monitoring policies for certain toxic chemicals, while others may not. Therefore, it is essential to know the specific food item and location to determine the accuracy of the statement.
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Betamethasone effects in newborn if used 24-37 weeks gestation?
Betamethasone in 24-37 weeks gestation reduces newborn's risk of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis.
Betamethasone, a corticosteroid, is administered to pregnant women between 24-37 weeks gestation to enhance fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of complications in preterm births.
Its primary effect in newborns is the reduction of respiratory distress syndrome, a condition where the infant's lungs struggle to function properly.
Additionally, betamethasone has been shown to decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage, which is bleeding in the brain, and necrotizing enterocolitis, a severe intestinal condition.
However, it is important to note that betamethasone should only be used under medical supervision, as its inappropriate use may lead to potential adverse effects.
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A doctor gives some of the patients a new drug for treating acne and the rest of the patients receive the old drug. Neither the patient nor the doctor knows who is getting which drug. Is this a blind experiment, double blind experiment, or neither? Why?
In a double-blind experiment, neither the patients nor the doctor knows which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug.
This is designed to minimize the effects of bias and ensure that any observed differences between the two groups are due to the effects of the drug, rather than other factors such as the patients' expectations . In contrast, a blind experiment involves the drug being administered to the patients, but the doctor or researcher administering the drug is not told.
which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug. This is designed to eliminate the possibility of the doctor or researcher influencing the results through their knowledge of which patients are receiving which drug. In this scenario, both the patients and the doctor are blinded.
which means that neither group knows which patients are receiving the new drug and which patients are receiving the old drug. This ensures that the results of the experiment are based solely on the effects of the drug, rather than on other factors such as the patients' expectations or the doctor's influence.
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Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via PCA (Patient controlled Analgesia) has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6/min
Notify the medical professional and get ready to give naloxone (Narcan).
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved the drug naloxone for use in treating opioid overdoses. In order to stop the effects of opiates on the brain and to restore respiration, naloxone is used.
What is PCA (Patient controlled Analgesia) ?You can choose when to receive a dose of pain medication using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), a method of pain treatment
After surgery, PCA can be used in hospitals to reduce pain. Or it can be applied to excruciating illnesses like sickle cell disease or pancreatitis.Hospice patients or cancer patients experiencing moderate to severe pain can also utilise PCA at home.Learn more about PCA (Patient controlled Analgesia) here:
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An individual who experiences disabling symptoms such as recurrent and intrusive distressing memories or dreams, flashbacks, difficulty sleeping, or inability to experience positive emotions within three days to a month after exposure to a traumatic event may be diagnosed with _____.
The individual is diagnosed with acute stress disorder (ASD). A stressful experience might result in acute stress disorder (ASD), a mental health condition, within the first month.
The symptoms of ASD are similar to those of PTSD, however PTSD requires that you have the symptoms for more than one month. Acute stress reactions (ASD) might cause the following symptoms: psychological signs and symptoms such anxiety, melancholy, irritability, mood swings, lack of sleep, difficulty concentrating, and a desire for solitude. Flashbacks are recurring dreams, which can be bothersome and unpleasant acute stress disorder.
A horrifying incident has been presented to those who suffer from acute stress disorder (ASD). Either directly or indirectly, they might feel it. For instance, direct exposure could result in the threat of death, severe damage, or violent behavior.
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which of the following is not a natural ligand that binds to G protein
Answer:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Explanation:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Why must a medical assistant understand how to convert between different systems of measurement?.
Answer:
The recommendations follow increasing concerns about medication errors caused by a lack of standardization in units of measure in the health care industry. Safety experts say confusion about metric and English weights can cause serious and often dangerous consequences for patients, especially children.
Explanation: pls brainliest
How many root words are in the medical term ot/o/laryng/o/logist? A.two. B.one. C. Three
Answer:
B. One
Explanation:
...
During a procedure with a patient the doctor asks you to do a task that you aren’t familiar with how do you proceed
Answer:
Don't do it when you aren't familiar. Ask for clarification always
Explanation:
Please mark me as brainliest
If the person is not knowing the task, then one should not proceed with the task. First, ask for more details.
What is a task?A piece of work that is usually assigned and must be completed within a certain amount of time or something difficult or unpleasant that must be done
Doctor refers to holders of doctoral degrees as well as medical practitioners, dentists, and veterinarians.
If the person does not understand the task, the task should not be completed. As the working on the given task that one is not familiar with can increase the complication, as it can also relate directly to the patient's health.
If one is having any doubt regarding the given task, they should get it verified with the professional before attempting it to reduce risk.
Thus, one should not proceed for the task in the given scenario.
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Lanoxin pediatric solution available in 0.5mg/ml. If a patient takes 0.25 mg of lanoxin per day, what will be the dispensed quantity im ml for 30 bdays
Answer:
15 mL
Explanation:
order/on hand x # days
0.25 mg/0.5 x 30
when determining the nature of a drug inquiry, how much detail required is also considered the ___ of the inquiry
The determination of the amount of detail needed in a drug inquiry is known as the Scope of the inquiry.
A Drug InquiryIs established to acquire certain information on a drug. Can be used to check the effectiveness of a drug.In a drug inquiry, the inquirer will need a variety of information to satisfy the purpose of that inquiry. The amount of information needed is known as the scope of the inquiry.
In conclusion, the answer is scope.
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Emilio, Kendrick, Celia, and Anna are nursing assistants working with different patients. Emilio stands by in order to
instruct and observe his patient. Kendrick cares for a patient in a coma by moving the patient's limbs. Celia moves the
legs of a patient whose spinal injury caused paralysis from the waist down. Anna works
with a patient who is able to
complete the exercises, but Anna assists the patient in order to deepen the stretches, enabling a better range of
motion
Which table best describes the kinds of range of motion exercises that each nursing assistant is participating in with
their patients?
h
Emilio is instructing and observing his patient, so he may be helping the patient perform a variety of range of motion exercises depending on the patient's needs and abilities.
Kendrick is likely performing passive range of motion exercises for his comatose patient, moving the patient's limbs to prevent stiffness and muscle atrophy. Celia is likely performing an active-assistive range of motion exercises with her paralyzed patient, helping the patient move their legs through a variety of exercises to maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures. Anna is likely performing active range of motion exercises with her patient, but providing assistance to help the patient deepen the stretches and improve their range of motion.
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Many of the same techniques used to lift heavy objects apply when moving patients as well.
True or false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Idw
Identify the major anatomical structures of the nose
Answer:
The internal structure of the nose, namely its cartilage and bone structure, is responsible for the physical/ visible characteristics of the nose. Internal Structure. The bony portion of the nose only makes up the upper third of the nose bridge. Physically, it is responsible for the height of the nose.
Explanation:
This is all I know.
Hope it helps~
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A vaginal/rectal swab is collected from a pregnant patient to screen for group b streptococcus colonization. the best medium to inoculate the specimen to is:______.
LIM broth is the ideal media to inoculate the specimen with.
Streptococcus infection: what is it?Unwelcome group When the germs manage to overcome the sick person's defenses, a streptococcal infection results. This might happen when someone has sores or other skin breakdowns that let bacteria enter the tissue.
How are streptococcus bacteria obtained?Direct contact with nasal and throat discharges from sick patients as well as contact with infected skin wounds or sores are the two main ways that these bacteria are transmitted. When a person is sick, such as when they have "strep throat" or an infected cut, their risk of spreading the virus is highest.
How is streptococcus treated?Doctors use medicines to treat strep throat. As an initial option, either amoxicillin or penicillin are suggested.
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The axon:
A.) Is the ending point of the nerve impulse.
B.) Sends neurotransmitters.
C.) Is the main body of the nerve cell.
D.) Receives neurotransmitters.
severity and outcomes of upper gastrointestinal bleeding with bloody vs coffee-grounds hematemesis. am j gastroenterol2018;113:358-66. doi:10.1038/ajg.2018.5. pmid:29380820
The study compared coffee-ground vomitus to the severity and prognosis of upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) in patients with bloody hematoma.
In addition to having more severe UGIB, individuals with coffee-ground vomiting also had a higher mortality rate, higher incidence of shock, and need for blood transfusion. Additionally, these individuals were more likely to require endoscopic intervention due to active bleeding during endoscopy. On the other hand, UGIB was less severe in patients with bloody hematoma and had reduced rates of shock, blood transfusions, and mortality. They were more likely to have experienced non-variceal bleeding.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Severity and Outcomes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding With Bloody Vs. Coffee-Grounds Hematemesis
Loren Laine 1 2, Stig B Laursen 3, Liam Zakko 1, Harry R Dalton 4, Jing H Ngu 5, Michael Schultz 6, Adrian J Stanley 7
Affiliations expand
PMID: 29380820 DOI: 10.1038/ajg.2018.5
Abstract
Objectives: Numerous reviews indicate bloody hematemesis signifies more severe bleeding than coffee-grounds hematemesis. We assessed severity and outcomes related to bleeding symptoms in a prospective study.
Methods: Consecutive patients presenting with hematemesis or melena were categorized as bloody emesis (N=1209), coffee-grounds emesis without bloody emesis (N=701), or melena without hematemesis (N=1069). We assessed bleeding severity (pulse, blood pressure) and predictors of outcome (hemoglobin, risk stratification scores) at presentation, and outcomes of bleeding episodes. The primary outcome was a composite of transfusion, intervention, or mortality.
Results: Bloody and coffee-grounds emesis were similar in pulse ≥100 beats/min (35 vs. 37%), systolic blood pressure ≤100 mm Hg (12 vs. 12%), and hemoglobin ≤100 g/l (25 vs. 27%). Risk stratification scores were lower with bloody emesis. The composite end point was 34.7 vs. 38.2% for bloody vs. coffee-grounds emesis; mortality was 6.6 vs. 9.3%. Hemostatic intervention was more common (19.4 vs. 14.4%) with bloody emesis (due to a higher frequency of varices necessitating endoscopic therapy), as was rebleeding (7.8 vs. 4.5%). Outcomes were worse with hematemesis plus melena vs. isolated hematemesis for bloody (composite: 62.4 vs. 25.6%; hemostatic intervention: 36.5 vs. 13.8%) and coffee-grounds emesis (composite: 59.1 vs. 27.1%; hemostatic intervention: 26.4 vs. 8.1%).
Conclusions: Bloody emesis is not associated with more severe bleeding episodes at presentation or higher mortality than coffee-grounds emesis, but is associated with modestly higher rates of hemostatic intervention and rebleeding. Outcomes with hematemesis are worsened with concurrent melena. The presence of bloody emesis plus melena potentially could be considered in decisions regarding timing of endoscopy.
a school district had a strict policy that prohibited the nonmedical possession, use, and sale or other distribution of any drug on school grounds. administrators at a middle school in the district were informed by a student that other students had talked about bringing prescription medications from home to school to take at lunchtime for recreational use. one day the following week, the same student gave a school administrator a pill, which the school nurse determined contained prescription-strength medication. the student stated that he had been given the pill by another student that morning. as a threshold matter, what standard does the administrator need to satisfy in order to conduct a search of the other student's person for possession of prescription medications?
As a threshold matter, the administrator needs to satisfy the standard of reasonable suspicion in order to conduct a search of the other student's person for possession of prescription medications.
Reasonable suspicion is a legal standard that requires the administrator to have specific and articulable facts that would lead a reasonable person to believe that a search is necessary to maintain school safety or to enforce the school's policies.
In this case, the administrator has received information from a student that other students have been talking about bringing prescription medications from home for recreational use. Additionally, the same student has given the administrator a pill that has been determined by the school nurse to contain prescription-strength medication. The student has also stated that they received the pill from another student that morning.
Based on these facts, the administrator has reasonable suspicion that the other student may be in possession of prescription medications on school grounds. This reasonable suspicion justifies the need for a search of the student's person to determine if they are indeed in possession of prescription medications in violation of the school district's policy.
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What is drugs?
nonsense=reported
Answer:
What is drugs?
Drugs are chemical substances that can change how your body and mind work.....................The is the level of regional integration that remains an ideal and is yet to be achieved. A. free trade area B. common market C. political union D.customs union
The level of regional integration that remains an ideal and is yet to be achieved is C. Political Union.
A political union refers to the highest level of regional integration, where member countries not only have economic integration, but also political integration. This means that they would have a single government, shared institutions, and a unified political system. While there are various degrees of regional integration, such as free trade areas, customs unions, and common markets, a full political union is yet to be achieved among any group of countries.
In a political union, countries would work together on a deeper level, making decisions collectively and implementing policies that benefit the entire union. This level of integration goes beyond economic cooperation, encompassing political, social, and cultural aspects as well. This is considered an ideal since it would involve a high level of trust, coordination, and shared goals among the member countries.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is known to have a high risk for venous thromboembolism. what preventive actions should the nurse recommend? select all that apply.
The nurse should recommend ambulation, wearing graduated compression stockings and taking daily aspirin to reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism.
A. Ambulate regularly C. Wear graduated compression stockings D. Take daily aspirinThe nurse should recommend regular ambulation, as well as wearing graduated compression stockings, which apply pressure to the veins in order to improve circulation. Aspirin can also be taken daily to reduce the risk of clot formation. All of these measures can help to reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism in the client.
Here's the full task:
The nurse is caring for a client who is known to have a high risk for venous thromboembolism. What preventive actions should the nurse recommend?
Choose the right options:
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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