Answer:
24%
Explanation:
Probability of 1 green is 5/12
Probability of 0 green is 7/12
5/12 * 7/12 = 35/144 or 0.24
What do you believe score indicates about your diet and your current stress level?
Answer:
Individual scores on the PSS can range from 0 to 40 with higher scores indicating higher perceived • stress. ► Scores ranging from 0-13 would be considered low stress. ► Scores ranging from 14-26 would be considered moderate stress. ► Scores ranging from 27-40 would be considered high perceived stress.
A young female who is experiencing low energy levels and amenorrhea visits her doctor. During her visit, the doctor diagnoses her with osteoporosis. Upon analyzing all three factors low energy, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis the doctor should ultimately conclude that this young woman is:_____.
During her visit, the doctor diagnoses her with osteoporosis. Upon analyzing all three factors low energy, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis. The doctor should ultimately conclude that this young woman is potentially suffering from a condition known as female athlete triad.
Female athlete triad is a combination of three interrelated conditions: low energy availability (often due to disordered eating or excessive exercise), menstrual dysfunction (amenorrhea or irregular periods), and decreased bone mineral density (osteoporosis or osteopenia). It is commonly seen in female athletes or individuals who engage in high-intensity exercise and have inadequate calorie intake to support their energy needs. The low energy availability can lead to hormonal imbalances, including disruptions in estrogen production, which can have detrimental effects on bone health and result in osteoporosis.
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For a drug to be placed on the Schedule I drug list, the drug must have _________. Choose all that apply.
a) low potential for abuse
b) a high potential for abuse
c) no currently accepted medical use
d) accepted therapeutic functions
e) a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug
For a drug to be placed on the Schedule I drug list, the drug must have b. a high potential for abuse, c. no currently accepted medical use, and e. a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug.
These three factors are the criteria used by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) to determine which drugs are placed on the Schedule I list, which is the most restrictive category for controlled substances. Drugs in this category are considered to have the highest potential for abuse and dependence and are not recognized for medical use in the United States. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and marijuana.
It is important to note that while these drugs are considered to have no accepted medical use in the United States, some states have legalized marijuana for medicinal purposes. However, the federal government still considers marijuana to be a Schedule I drug. So therefore the correct answer is a high potential for abuse, c. no currently accepted medical use, and e. a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug, for a drug to be placed on the Schedule I drug list
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a tethered personal health record (phr) is one that ________.
A tethered or connected PHR is connected to the electronic health record (EHR) platform of a particular healthcare organization or to the data infrastructure of a health plan.
What is PHR ?
A PHR is an electronic record of a person's health information that allows the person to manage, monitor, and take part in their own healthcare while also controlling who has access to the information. An electronic health record should not be confused with a PHR. All the data that was previously in a patient's paper medical record but is now available in electronic form is contained in an EHR, which is owned and maintained by a healthcare provider.
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The hardness of these minerals is most closely related to the
(1) Mineral’s color.
(2) Mineral’s abundance in nature.
(3) Amount of iron the mineral contains.
(4) Bonding of the mineral’s atoms
Answer:
(4) Bonding of the mineral's atoms
Explanation:
The hardness of minerals has a very close relationship with the internal arrangement of it's atoms (bonding).
Hardness of a mineral refers to a measure of it's resistance to scratching. The color of a mineral does not have any effect on the chemical structure of the mineral.Mineral abundance has to do with the amount of the mineral which exists in nature. The iron content in a mineral does not necessarily infer hardness The bonding of mineral atoms which involves the arrangement of the atoms which the mineral is composed of determines the hardness. The greater the strength of the bonding, the higher the minerals level of hardness. The lattice structure and nature of bonding determines how hard a mineral will be. Minerals which exhibits covalent bonding between their atoms with a three dimensional lattice structure are usually harder than minerals which exhibits close lattice packing. Hardness can be measured on the moh scale.Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/10777799?referrer=searchResults
You do not tell the nurse about a patient’s chest pain. The patient dies from a heart attack. You
A. did nothing wrong
B. could face negligence charges
C. Are not legally responsible
D. Are guilty of fraud
Answer:
could face negligence charges
____ is the correct intervention to perform when administering oxygen via nasal cannula.
A) Using tape to secure the cannula to the nose to prevent dislodging of the delivery system B) Checking the oxygen flow rate and physician's orders at least every 2 hours C) Monitoring the patient for skin breakdown in the nares and over the ears D) Changing the cannula and tubing every 8 hours to prevent bacterial growth
C) monitoring the patient for skin lesions in the nostrils and over the ears is the correct intervention to perform when oxygen is administered through a nasal cannula.
It is important to monitor the patient for skin breakdown in the nostrils and over the ears because the nasal cannula can cause irritation and pressure ulcers in these areas.
Interventions such as using adhesive tape to secure the cannula so that it does not become dislodged from the delivery system (a), checking every 2 hours for oxygen flow and medical instructions (b) and changing the cannula to avoid infection (d) are also important and should be included.
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Hey guys, summers almost here!! which means things that you can plan for the summer, what are your plans for the sumer??
Answer:
probably sleep in, eating as much as I can xD, spending time with my family, and probably going to get my permit
have a good day :)
Explanation:
Answer:
I would probably just stay at home, watch some shows, play some games, read books, and talk with my friends :)
Explanation:
Have a good day :)
Angina pectoris is pain in the chest due to inadequate delivery of____
to the heart muscle.
Answer:
blood pumped?
Foods high in calories but low in nutrients is full of?
Answer:
The six essential nutrients include carbohydrates, protein, fat, vitamins, minerals and water.
Explanation:
:)
What is the food and drug administration requirement for an off site caterer?
To ensure the safety and quality of their food, off-site caterers must follow strict guidelines set out by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
This includes having a valid license from the local health department, a valid food service permit from the FDA, and a valid food safety certification. Furthermore, they must have a safe and clean workspace and equipment, and must adhere to the proper sanitation practices, such as washing hands and wearing hairnets.
Caterers must also keep records of food temperatures, ingredients, and food storage and handling practices. Additionally, they must have a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) plan in place which outlines the steps taken to ensure food safety and quality.
Finally, caterers must have a plan for responding to any food safety issues, such as a recall or emergency plan. By following these guidelines, off-site caterers can ensure that the food they prepare is safe and of the highest quality.
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You are scanning a patient with a known mass in the left medial segment of the liver. What anatomic landmark can you use to identify the left medial segment separate from the right anterior segment of the liver?
a. left portal vein
b. ligamentum teres
c. ligamentum venosum
d. middle hepatic vein
e. left hepatic vein
The anatomic landmark that can be used to identify the left medial segment separate from the right anterior segment of the liver is the middle hepatic vein. Option D is correct.
The liver is divided into eight segments based on the distribution of its blood supply. The division is based on the location of the portal triads, which consist of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and bile duct. The middle hepatic vein divides the liver into right and left halves. The left medial segment is located to the left of the middle hepatic vein and includes segments IVa and IVb, while the right anterior segment includes segments V and VIII.
Explanation:
Some Internet bloggers and others claim that saturated fat is good for you and does not cause heart disease. What are 3 reasons that Dr Davis gives to explain why the 2 studies (meta-analyses) that those pushing this idea often cite to show that saturated fat is OK , in fact offer flawed conclusions?
The flawed conclusions arise from inaccurate assessment methods, failure to account for confounding factors, and incorrect categorization of fats. These limitations diminish the reliability and validity of the studies that suggest saturated fat is not harmful.
Inaccurate Assessment: The studies rely on self-reported dietary intake data, which is notoriously unreliable. This introduces bias and inaccuracies in assessing the relationship between saturated fat and heart disease.
Confounding Factors: The studies fail to adequately account for confounding factors such as overall dietary patterns, lifestyle choices, and other dietary components. These factors can significantly influence the association between saturated fat intake and heart disease outcomes.
Inclusion of Trans Fat: Some studies incorrectly categorize trans fat as saturated fat. Trans fat is a known harmful fat linked to heart disease, and combining it with saturated fat skews the results and undermines accurate conclusions about the effects of saturated fat alone.
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of a
8. Which of the following is an example of a
reli-gious dietary practice?
(A) Eating dessert before the main course
(B) Chewing slowly
(C) Eating goose for Christmas dinner
(D) Eating kosher foods
Answer:
D. Eating kosher foods.
Self-fulfilling prophecies in the realm of psychology are referred to as.
Self-fulfilling prophecies in the realm of psychology are referred to as the "Pygmalion effect" or the "Rosenthal effect".
The Pygmalion effect is the phenomenon where higher expectations lead to an increase in performance, while lower expectations lead to a decrease in performance. This effect can occur when a person's beliefs or expectations about another person influence how they treat that person, which in turn can influence the other person's behavior.
The Rosenthal effect is a similar phenomenon where an experimenter's expectations about the outcome of an experiment can influence the behavior of the participants and ultimately the results of the experiment. This effect can occur when an experimenter unintentionally communicates their expectations to the participants through their behavior or feedback.
Both the Pygmalion effect and the Rosenthal effect highlight the power of expectations and beliefs in shaping behavior and outcomes, and they have important implications for education, management, and other areas of social psychology.
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What are the required treatments for sepsis? Select all that apply.
immediate administration of intravenous fluids
bone marrow transplant
low-dose aspirin
immediate administration of antibiotics
Answer:
-immediate administration of intravenous fluids
-immediate adminitration of antibiotics
Explanation: I just did the assignment on Edg.
Answer:
1st & 2nd choice
Explanation:
immediate administration of intravenous fluids
-immediate adminitration of antibiotics
What is a pressure point
Answer:
A pressure point is a point on the body sensitive to pressure
Explanation:
When leaving your home in the event of a flood, which precaution should you take?
A. Lock the doors
B. Leave the windows open a crack
C. Turn off the electricity.
D. Leave in a car, if possible.
____________________
If you are driving outside and a tornado strikes, what should you do?
A. Stop the car and lie down in a low-lying ditch.
B. Keep driving to the nearest building.
C. Start the car and lie down on the floor of the car
D. Stop the car and run to the nearest building
____________________
where is the best place to stand during an earthquake?
A. In a doorway
B. In the basement
C. In the attic
D. In the closet
____________________
Eating the entire loaf of bread would give you about the same amount of Vitamin A as eating _____ of a medium size carrot
Eating the entire loaf of bread would give you about the same amount of Vitamin A as eating 1/20th of a medium size carrot.
Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that helps in maintaining healthy eyesight, immune system, and skin. Carrots are a rich source of Vitamin A, and a medium-sized carrot contains about 1025 international units (IU) of Vitamin A. On the other hand, bread is not a significant source of Vitamin A unless it is fortified with it.
According to the USDA, one slice of fortified white bread contains around 58 IU of Vitamin A. Therefore, to get the same amount of Vitamin A as in one medium-sized carrot, you would need to eat about 18 slices of fortified white bread, which is roughly equivalent to an entire loaf of bread.
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a coconut falling from a palm tree hits more strongly than a mango falling from tree which law of motion is that
i would say it's the second law! in the second law, the force on an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
which health condition can occur with an iron mineral deficiency?
A client presents with fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. what should the nurse suspect are possible causes? select all that apply.
The possible causes viral bacterial toxin
Frequent symptoms of infections brought on by bacterial toxins or viruses include fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever or vomiting are not signs of irritable bowel syndrome, chronic discomfort, or laxative misuse.
Causes of vomiting and diarrhea: -
Gastroenteritis
An intestinal ailment known as gastroenteritis can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites. Gastroenteritis is occasionally referred to as the stomach flu or a virus.
Additionally, some travelers have gastroenteritis, sometimes known as traveler's diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis caused by a virus is extremely infectious and spreads quickly between people. The norovirus is the most typical cause of gastroenteritis, and it takes 24-48 hours to incubate. This implies that a person can spread the sickness before realizing they are ill.
Gastroenteritis symptoms include:
abdominal cramps and agony
diarrheal diarrhea
dizziness or vomiting
Occasionally, a fever
The majority of patients recover from viral gastroenteritis in 1-3 days, according to the NIDDKTrusted Source. Some viruses, however, can persist for one to two weeks. Adenovirus and rotavirus are two of them, and they are typically younger children.
Foodborne illness
When someone consumes or drinks tainted food or water, food poisoning ensues. Food poisoning can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites, just like gastroenteritis. Food poisoning is not infectious, in contrast to gastroenteritis.
Oftentimes, food poisoning strikes abruptly. It may start to manifest 30 minutes to many weeksTrusted Source after ingesting the infected food, depending on the virus or bacterium a person ingests. The most typical signs are as follows:
stomach pain
nauseous and dizzy
diarrhea
fever
Most victims of food poisoning recover on their own. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Trusted Source notes that those with poorer immune systems, elderly persons, children under the age of 5, pregnant women, and those with weakened immune systems are more prone to have consequences.
Medications
According to NIDDKTrusted Source cite the fact that vomiting and diarrhea are additional negative effects of several drugs. These include magnesium-containing antacids and antibiotics.
Chronic digestive issues can result from long-term antibiotic usage because it alters the gut flora in the large intestine. It could also make a Clostridium difficile infection more likely.
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Project: Food Allergies Directions 1. In this project, discuss any experiences you or people you know have had with food allergies or food sensitivities. If you have not had an allergy or do not know anyone with food allergies, do some research on the Internet to find some personal stories.
What are the problems that people with allergies face?
What do you think you could do as a food-service manager to alleviate those problems?
2. Read the document: www.fda.gov
Assignment Guidelines: 1. Write a 250-word summary of the main points of the article. Then write a 250-word analysis, answering the questions:
A. Why is this regulation so important? B. Why is it important for food-service managers to know the law?
C. What is the risk of not knowing and complying with the law? To receive the full points, your answers should have no more than three grammatical errors and three spelling errors. When you use the exact words from the article, they should be in quotation marks with a parenthetical citation. Your answers should be thoughtful and demonstrate your critical-thinking skills.
Answer:
for 1 a say that it is important because if they accidently cross contaimaiate they would be sued or closed down
Explanation:
Answer:
The World Health Organization (WHO) has long been aware of the need to educate food handlers about their responsibilities for food safety. In the early 1990s, WHO developed the Ten Golden Rules for Safe Food Preparation, which were widely translated and reproduced. However, it became obvious that something simpler and more generally applicable was needed. After nearly a year of consultation with food safety experts and risk communicators, WHO introduced the Five Keys to Safer Food poster in 2001. The Five Keys to Safer Food poster incorporates all the messages of the Ten Golden Rules for Safe Food Preparation under simpler headings that are more easily remembered and also provides more details on the reasoning behind the suggested measures. Keeping clean. Separating raw ingredients, and raw and uncooked ingredients. Cook all food thoroughly. You ALWAYS need to cook food fully and thoroughly. Keep food at safe temperatures always. And lastly, ALWAYS use safe water and safe ingredients.
Explanation:
self explained
U find that the victim is not responsive not breathing normally and you call 911 what is your next treatment
Answer:
give chest compressions
Answer:
you do CPR and keep on checking the pulse if it is working again until the ambulence comes, I honestly don't know too much about this major but I think that is what you are supposed to do.
Explanation:
According to statistics, currently there are approximately
A 22 million
B. 15 million
C.
10 million
5 million
D.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
OA
B
Oc
OD
drug users living in the United States
Answer:
According to the National Survey on Drug Use and Health (NSDUH), among Americans aged 12 years and older, 37.309 million were current illegal drug users (used within the last 30 days) as of 2020. However, none of the options provided (A. 22 million, B. 15 million, C. 10 million, D. 5 million) match this statistic. Therefore, none of the options are correct.
What is the role of the kidneys in preventing increased blood ammonia with high protein intake?
A. conversion to urea and excretion in urine
B. conversion to uric acid and excretion in the urine
C. filtering of blood and excretion of urea in the urine
D. excretion of ammonia and extra protein in the urine
E. neutralization of uric acid to urea followed by excretion in the urine
The correct option for the role of the kidneys in preventing increased blood ammonia with high protein intake is A. conversion to urea and excretion in urine.
Ammonia is toxic to the body, particularly to the brain, and high levels of ammonia can lead to a condition called hyperammonemia. This can cause damage to the kidneys as they try to filter out the excess ammonia. If left untreated, it can lead to irreversible kidney damage or even kidney failure.
To prevent damage to the kidneys from increased blood ammonia with high protein intake, it is important to drink plenty of water to help flush out the urea and other waste products. It is also important to consume a balanced diet and not rely solely on high protein sources, exercise regularly, and monitor your kidney function through regular check-ups with your healthcare provider.
So, the option for the role of kidneys to prevent from ammonia is A.
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During REM sleep ___ occurs?
Answer:
B: Dreams happen
Explanation:
Can I have a brainliest. I need 1 more
physiological effects while under the influence of mdma/ecstasy are?
Answer:
High blood pressure, Heart Failure, Dehydration, and Seizures
Explanation: N/A
a nurse reviews a patient’s laboratory results. which results from the patient’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as a normal?
The nurse should identify the following results as normal in a client's urinalysis a. pH: 6, b. Specific gravity: 1.015 and d. Glucose: negative
Urinalysis is the name for a urine examination. It is used to treat and diagnose a variety of illnesses, including as kidney disease, uti infections, and diabetes. This looks at the consistency, concentration, and composition of urine. Similar to when a urinary tract infection is present, increased protein levels in the urine may be a sign of kidney disease. pH levels in urine normally vary from 4.5 to 8, therefore a pH of 6 is within the normal range.
Urine with a pH of 6 is regarded to be slightly acidic and is thus normal. Urine with a specific gravity of 1.015 is within the usual range. The normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.003 to 1.030. A urine concentration of normal is indicated by a specific gravity of 1.015. The absence of any detectable glucose is indicated by a negative urine glucose test result. During a typical urinalysis, urine shouldn't contain any glucose.
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Complete Question:
A nurse reviews a clients laboratory results. Which results from the clients urinalysis should the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)
a. pH: 6
b. Specific gravity: 1.015
c. Protein: 1.2 mg/dL
d. Glucose: negative
e. Nitrate: small
f. Leukocyte esterase: positive
Do u prefer to eat unhealthy or healthy food ?
Describe about it
Don't anyone dare to post irrelevant answers.
Thank you in advance
Answer:
I like them both actually. TBH I am the first kid who doesn't like pizza or burger (I hate the vegetables in them)! I like healthy food (meat) but that does not include vegetables of course.