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Methadone has several advantages over heroin as a maintenance drug, including its longer-lasting effects, reduced euphoria and cravings, safer administration, legal accessibility, and availability of support services.
Methadone is often used as a maintenance drug for individuals with opioid addiction. It has several advantages over heroin, including: Longer-lasting effects: Methadone has a longer half-life than heroin, which means that it stays in the body for a longer period of time. This allows for more stable blood levels and reduces the need for frequent dosing. Reduced euphoria and cravings: Methadone produces less euphoria and craving than heroin, which can help reduce the risk of relapse. Safer administration: Methadone can be administered orally in a controlled setting, which reduces the risks associated with injection drug use. Legal accessibility: Methadone is a legal medication that can be obtained through a licensed medical provider, whereas heroin is an illegal drug that is obtained through illicit means. Availability of support services: Methadone maintenance programs often offer additional support services such as counseling, case management, and medical care, which can help individuals achieve and maintain recovery.
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Related Questions
38. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
Answers
Answer:
The coach should immediately stop physical activity and then take your blood pressure.
Explanation:
Many pregnant women tend to suffer from preclampcia, which is high blood pressure during pregnancy, which is very careful since it is risky for the mother and the baby.
High blood pressure in pregnant women can cause detachments of the placenta, interruption of pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
It is very risky not to perceive these signs or said pathology, those pregnant women who are diagnosed with high blood pressure should do strict rest and monitoring.
Pregnant women bear the weight and physiological conditions of the baby and child. The trainer should immediately halt the training and check for the vitals of the women.
The trainer should do the following:
1. The trainer should immediately stop the training if the woman is experiencing dizziness and persistent severe headaches.
2. The symptoms could indicate the cause of preeclampsia, which is one of the most common complications of pregnancy. It has symptoms of high blood pressure, damage to the organ systems, and dizziness.
3. The trainer should immediately check for the vitals and measure the blood pressure of the pregnant women. The trainer should immediately contact the medical physician for monitoring and checking of the pregnant women.
Thus, the trainer should stop exercising and check the blood pressure.
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The nursing instructor notices a client who is in pain yet does not have a pulse oximeter in use, and suggests to the student that one should be attached. why
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Patients who are in pain frequently breathe more quickly, which raises the possibility of atelectasis.
The nursing instructor examines a client who is in pain but does not have a pulse oximeter in use and advises the student that the pulse oximeter should not be attached since people who are in pain often breathe more shallowly, which raises the risk of atelectasis. This refers to the total or partial collapse of a lung or lung lobe. Alveolar fluid may also fill the tiny air sacs within the lung, which causes it to deflate. One of the most frequent breathing (respiratory) side effects following surgery is atelectasis.
Hence, values of pulse oximeter fluctuates in stressful state of patient.
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Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional?
CCU
CLIA
MLS
RN
Answers
Answer:
CCU means Coronary Care Unit
CLIA means Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
MLS means Medical Laboratory Scientist
RN Registered Nurse
Out of all those options MLS is the answer.
A diet pill that acts to increase oxygen consumption and a high amount of electron transport without atp production is likely what kind of compound?.
Answers
Answer:
uncoupler
Explanation:
A 12 year old with known sickle cell disease and autism has undergone an inguinal hernia repair. the perianesthesia nurse is aware that the main surgical risk to this patient is?
Answers
Answer: 1. hypoxia from anesthesia.
Domain: Physiological Needs
Content Area: Stability of Respiratory System
Reference: Hockenberry, M., Wilson, D. Wong's Nursing Care of Infants and Children. 10th Ed. CV. Mosby, 2015. pg 1348.
A patient who is receiving an immune modulator has been admitted to the unit. what would be a priority action by the nurse?
Answers
Monitor the biochemistry of the blood and vitals. Check the urine output and look for visible signs of inflammation in the body.
What are immunomodulatory drugs?Immunomodulatory drugs elicit an immune response in the body of a patient consuming it.
Immunomodulatory drugs are taken to boost the immunity of an individual. Immunomodulatory drugs are the part of immune therapy.
Immunomodulatory drugs increases the production of antibodies in the body and thus evokes the immune responses.
Immunomodulatory drugs are commonly taken after chemotherapy. In the treatment of cancer, many healthy cells are also destroyed along with the cancer cells.
The immune system of the person is weakened and so immunomodulatory drugs are taken.
Immunomodulators have common side effects like fatigue, constipation, low haemoglobin count, nausea etc.
There are many natural agents that work as immunomodulators for the body. For eg., some herbs, vitamin D supplements etc.
Therefore, immunomodulators increase the body's immunity.
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How can a child care professional introduce children to classical music? A. Allow them to interpret classical music through dancing
B. Use classical music during the music lessons only
C. Have them watch a classical music video like an opera
D. Introduce the composers but not the music itself
Answers
They need to move and hear the music
Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item
B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a sterile container
Answers
B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change
This action is a break in the sterile technique because the outer wrapper of sterilized materials is not sterile, and touching it without sterile gloves can contaminate the item inside. The use of sterile forceps or sterile gloves is necessary to maintain a sterile field during a dressing change.
Using sterile forceps to handle a sterile item is not a break in sterile technique as long as the forceps have been properly sterilized. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field is also a break-in sterile technique because the edge is not considered sterile.
Lastly, pouring out a small amount of solution before pouring it into a sterile container is not a break-in sterile technique as long as the container remains sterile and the solution is not contaminated during the process. It is essential to follow proper sterile techniques to prevent the transmission of infections and maintain patient safety. Therefore, Option B is correct.
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the lachman test is used to evaluate stability of the
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The Lachman test is used to evaluate stability of the ACL.
The Lachman test is a physical examination technique used by medical professionals, usually orthopedic surgeons or sports medicine doctors, to evaluate the stability of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint. The test can also help identify a partial or complete ACL tear.
During the test, the examiner will hold the patient's knee in a partially flexed position and pull the tibia forward relative to the femur while stabilizing the femur. The amount of anterior translation (forward movement) is then graded on a scale from 0 to 3, with a higher score indicating greater instability and a more severe injury to the ACL.In summary, the Lachman test is used to evaluate the stability of the ACL and can help diagnose a partial or complete tear of the ligament.
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Your patient is a 73 year old man that had surgery on his hip. After surgery, he is experiences difficulty swallowing and has had a feeding tube in place for two and a half weeks to help administer his medication and provide feedings through. Your patient has been showing signs of improvement, and has started on a thickened liquid diet.Which type of health care setting would be most appropriate for him to receive his care?
Answers
Answer:
anti-flimatory pills
Explanation:
What does the prefix in the term bradypnea mean?
Answers
The prefix "brady-" in the term "bradypnea" means "slow". "Pnea" refers to "breathing". Therefore, "bradypnea" means "slow breathing".
The prefix in the term bradypnea means "slow." Bradypnea is a medical term that describes a decreased respiratory rate or slow breathing.
It is derived from two Greek words: brady, meaning slow, and pnea, meaning breathing or respiration. Bradypnea is a condition that affects a person's breathing rate, and it is characterized by the reduced number of breaths per minute.
A person with bradypnea might breathe slower than 12 times per minute, which can result in poor oxygenation in the body. The most common causes of bradypnea include sleep apnea, heart disease, stroke, and side effects of medication.
Some people may experience bradypnea as a side effect of general anesthesia or opioid drugs. Bradypnea can be dangerous when it is not treated promptly, especially in newborns and elderly people. Therefore, it is important to consult a healthcare professional if you notice any unusual changes in breathing patterns.
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You and your EMT partner are the first to arrive at the scene of an unresponsive 70-year-old man. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. A paramedic unit is en route to the scene and will arrive in approximately 5 minutes. You should:
Answers
First, begin CPR.
Next, apply the AED. Shock if indicated.
Apply the AED and follow the prompts until the medic unit arrives.
what is soil erosion
Answers
Answer:
★ It is a process in which the top fertile layer of soil is lost. Due to soil erosion, the soil becomes less fertile. The top layer of soil is very light which is easily carried away by wind and water. The removal of topsoil by the natural forces is known as soil erosion.
Explanation:
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what does acetometiphine do to the body?
Answers
Explanation:
iy kills ur body from the inside like a sucide pill
Answer:
It relieves minor aches and pain
Explanation:
when caring for a child who has a diagnosis of acute glomerulohephritis, which nursing interventions would most likely be included in the child's plan of care? select all that apply
Answers
Few nursing interventions that would most likely help the patient to recover from acute glomerulonephritis could include promoting complete rest, restricting the consumption of salt and fluid intake, and restricting protein in the food.
Acute glomerulonephritis refers to the inflammation in the glomerulus of kidney due to which the kidney malfunctions occurs and the proper absorption or excretion of minerals from the body does not take place. Some symptoms of this disease are blood in urination, nausea or fatigue, hypertension, pain or swelling in joints etc. Periorbital edema may accompany or precede hematuria. One way of treatment of this disease in extreme cases could be through dialysis or kidney transplant. But this is not easy. It is advised to avoid processed food, spicy or tangy food in this disease rather foods such as cauliflower, garlic, olive oil or blueberries must be included in the diet.
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what’s an example of a body surface area formula
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A 1g vial of cefuroxime powder is reconstituted with 9.5mls of water for injection. This equals 10mls of solution, what volume would you draw up for a 700mg dose?
Answers
To prepare a 700mg dose of cefuroxime from a reconstituted 1g vial, the nurse should draw up a volume of 7000ml. This calculation is based on the concentration of the reconstituted solution, which is 0.1g/ml.
To determine the volume to draw up for a 700mg dose of cefuroxime, we can use a proportion based on the concentration of the reconstituted solution.
Given that the 1g vial of cefuroxime is reconstituted with 9.5mls of water for injection to make a total volume of 10mls, we can calculate the concentration of the solution.
Concentration of the solution = Amount of drug (in grams) / Total volume (in milliliters)
Concentration = 1g / 10ml = 0.1g/ml
Now we can set up a proportion to find the volume for a 700mg dose.
Dose (in milligrams) / Volume (in milliliters) = Concentration (in grams/milliliter)
Let's assign the variables:
Dose = 700mg
Volume = x (to be determined)
Concentration = 0.1g/ml
Setting up the proportion:
700mg / x = 0.1g / 1ml
Cross-multiplying:
0.1g * x = 700mg * 1ml
Simplifying:
0.1x = 700
Dividing both sides by 0.1:
x = 700 / 0.1
Calculating:
x = 7000
Therefore, the volume to draw up for a 700mg dose of cefuroxime is 7000ml.
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Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?
Answers
Answer:
it is important because it stable breathing
Early defibrillation is a link in the adult survival chain because it increases the chances of survival after experiencing a cardiac arrest because it is the process of delivering an electrical shock to the heart.
What is the significance of defibrillation?It is significant because it can help someone recover from a cardiac arrest by restoring a normal heart rhythm, which is a life-saving procedure that uses an electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Through this process, a shock is given to the chest that stops the abnormal rhythm, and allows the normal rhythm to return, and makes the heart pump again.
Hence, early defibrillation is a link in the adult survival chain because it increases the chances of survival after experiencing a cardiac arrest because it is the process of delivering an electrical shock to the heart.
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How many of the mother-child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother-child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow up study? What frequency and percent of the mother-child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?
Answers
Answer:
Did the study include sampling inclusion criteria? What were those criteria? Were these criteria appropriate for this study?a.Yes, the study included a sampling inclusion criteria.b.The criteria was: i.The targeted child was between the ages of 3 to 5 years old at the time of data collection between March 2010 through March 2011ii.The mother had primary custody or regular visitation with the childiii.The dyad lived in state and/or was able to meet in state for the data collection iv.The mother participated in the MTB program or the control condition beyond the initial consent period. c.Yes, the criteria was appropriate for the study.2.Sampling inclusion and exclusion are developed to determine what type of population? What is the accessible population? Document your answer.a.Sampling inclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that must be present for an element or participant to be included in a sample. b.Sampling exclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that eliminate or exclude participants from being in a sample. c.Researchers may identify from very broad sampling criteria to very specific criterion. Broad sampling criteria can promote a large, diverse, or heterogeneous population, while specific sampling criteria promote a smaller, more homogeneous population. d.The accessible population is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions. This population is a subset of the target population and is also known as the study population. It is from the accessible population thatresearchers draw their samples.3.How many of the mother–child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother–child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow-up study? What frequency and percent of the mother–child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?a.50 mother-child dyads (80.6%) were available for contact.b.62 mother-child dyads from the initial intervention group met all the eligibility criteria and were therefore included in the follow up study.c.12 mother-child dyads we unreachable.
Explanation:
A client complains of vertigo. The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?
a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. Tympanic membrane
Answers
The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with the inner ear (c). The correct option is C.
Vertigo is often associated with issues related to the inner ear, specifically the balance and vestibular system.
The inner ear contains structures such as the semicircular canals and the vestibular nerve, which play a crucial role in maintaining balance and detecting changes in head position and movement.
Problems in the inner ear, such as infections, inflammation, or disorders affecting these structures, can result in symptoms of vertigo, which is characterized by a spinning or dizzy sensation.
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the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
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The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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Mrs. Martin was seen by the physician because she was having trouble with her blood glucose levels. The doctor listed the diagnosis as diabetes. What information is necessary to locate the proper code?
Answers
To locate the proper code for the diagnosis of diabetes, it is necessary to identify the type of diabetes and its severity. Diabetes is classified into different types, such as type 1, type 2, and gestational diabetes. The severity of diabetes is also categorized as either controlled or uncontrolled.
The following information is necessary to locate the proper code for the diagnosis of diabetes: Type of diabetes: This identifies the type of diabetes that the patient has. There are three types of diabetes: type 1, type 2, and gestational diabetes. Severity of diabetes: This identifies the severity of the diabetes and whether it is controlled or uncontrolled. The severity of diabetes is determined by the blood glucose levels of the patient.
The diagnostic codes for diabetes are divided into controlled and uncontrolled codes. Manifestations: These are the signs and symptoms that the patient is experiencing due to the diabetes. Some common manifestations include increased thirst, frequent urination, weight loss, and blurred vision. The diagnostic codes for diabetes include codes for various manifestations of the disease.
Location: The location of the patient is also necessary to determine the proper diagnostic code. This is because the codes used for diagnosis may vary depending on the country or region. In the United States, the codes used for diagnosis are based on the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM).The diagnostic code for diabetes is used to identify the type and severity of the disease. This information is used to determine the appropriate treatment and management of the patient's diabetes.
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Ling brought her little fox terrier, Sparks, on vacation with her. One thing she forgot was Sparks’ insulin. Ling goes to a local pharmacy to see if she can get insulin for Sparks. The pharmacist says that they are out of synthetic insulin, but they have beef-based insulin. How will Ling MOST likely react to this news? She will thank the pharmacist because Sparks can use beef-based insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because dogs can only use synthetic insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic. She will just plan to forgo giving Sparks his insulin for the trip.
Answers
She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic.
A 12-month-old toddler weighing 18 pounds is brought to the clinic because of weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays. His mother reports that the only food he will consume is cow's milk. The symptoms support a diagnosis of which form of anemia
Answers
The symptoms support a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia.
What is anemia?Anemia is a disease condition in which their is low production of red blood cells in the body or low amount of iron present in the body for production of red blood cells.
Iron-deficiency anemia a produces symptoms such as weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays in children.
Therefore, the symptoms support a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia.
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Hello! Can someone please give me a a brief job description for a audiologist?
Answers
Answer:
An audiologist helps people with finding hearing disorders and balance other neural systems.
Explanation:
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What does Myo O mean?
Answers
"Myo" is a prefix meaning "muscle," while "O" is a suffix meaning "study of." "Myo" combined with "O" refers to the study of muscles.
The prefix "myo-" is a combining form that is used in anatomy and physiology to refer to muscle. The suffix "-o" is a combining form that is used to indicate a subject of study. When used together, "myo-" and "-o" create the word "myology," which refers to the study of muscles. Myology is a subfield of anatomy that deals specifically with the study of the structure and function of muscles in the body. This includes the examination of different muscle types, the physiology of muscle contraction, and the role of muscles in movement and other physiological processes.
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2. How does the entire nervous system allow our bodies to interact with our world? Your response must include the following terms: • peripheral nervous system • central nervous system • Sensory neurons - motor neurons
Answers
There are many billions of nerve cells, also called neurons, in the nervous system. The brain alone has about 100 billion neurons in it. Each neuron has a cell body and various extensions. The shorter extensions (called dendrites) act like antennae: they receive signals from, for example, other neurons and pass them on to the cell body. The signals are then passed on via a long extension (the axon), which can be up to a meter long. The nervous system takes in information through our senses, processes the information and triggers reactions, such as making your muscles move or causing you to feel pain. For example, if you touch a hot plate, you reflexively pull back your hand and your nerves simultaneously send pain signals to your brain.
What is digestion?????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????
Answers
Answer:
is where food goes and digest
Something was wrong with Tu. He felt sick, and he had a fever. At 3:00 pm his temperature was 101.8°F By 5:00
pm it was 102.3°F. How many degrees had his temperature gone up by?
Answers
Answer:
.5
Explanation:
You subtract 102.3 F by 101.8 F to find out the difference.
most pregnancy tests detect _______ in the blood and urine of pregnant women.
Answers
Most pregnancy tests detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood and urine of pregnant women.
Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone produced by the placenta shortly after fertilization occurs. It serves as an important marker for pregnancy detection. Pregnancy tests, whether in the form of urine or blood tests, work by detecting the presence of hCG in the woman's body.
In urine-based pregnancy tests, the test strip or device contains antibodies that specifically bind to hCG molecules if present in the urine sample. This binding triggers a chemical reaction that indicates a positive or negative result, depending on the concentration of hCG detected.
Similarly, blood tests can measure the levels of hCG in the bloodstream, providing even more accurate and sensitive results. Blood-based pregnancy tests can detect hCG at an earlier stage of pregnancy than urine tests.
By detecting the presence of hCG, pregnancy tests can determine if a woman is pregnant by confirming the hormone's presence in the blood or urine sample.
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