What gland releases FSH?

Answers

Answer 1

The gland that releases FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is the pituitary gland, more specifically  the anterior pituitary gland which is located at the base of the brain. The anterior pituitary gland, also known as the adenohypophysis, is responsible for producing and releasing FSH

The adenohypophysis plays a vital role in the regulation of the reproductive systems in both males and females. The pituitary gland produces and releases several hormones, including FSH, which plays an important role in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles in females and the production of sperm cells in the testes in males. FSH is regulated by a complex feedback loop involving the hypothalamus and the ovaries or testes, and its release is influenced by factors such as age, gender, and certain medical conditions.

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Related Questions

how do you treat c.difficile

Answers

Answer:

vancomycin

fidaxomicin

Metronidazole

Will is writing an essay about behaviors that healthcare providers should avoid. Choose the correct way to complete each sentence.
those patients. This behavior creates a
Providers who make assumptions about patients based on certain traits are
that negatively affects the ability to provide care.

Answers

Do not click in the link above , he is a scammer and trying to fool us .

The size of a tax and the deadweight loss that results from the tax are Group of answer choices positively related. negatively related. independent of each other. equal to each other.

Answers

The size of a tax and the deadweight loss that results from the tax are positively related.

Deadweight loss is the loss of economic efficiency that occurs when a tax is imposed. It represents the reduction in consumer and producer surplus that results from the tax. The larger the tax, the greater the deadweight loss. This is because as the tax increases, the cost of production increases, which leads to a decrease in supply and a decrease in consumer demand. This results in a loss of efficiency in the market, and therefore a greater deadweight loss.

Therefore, we can conclude that the size of a tax and the deadweight loss that results from the tax are positively related.

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ABC Corporation holds a patent on a drug that prevents frowning. This is an example of a _____ barrier to entry.

mixed

high

low

marginal

Answers

The example you mentioned, where ABC Corporation holds a patent on a drug that prevents frowning, is an example of a high barrier to entry. A barrier to entry refers to obstacles or conditions that make it difficult for new firms to enter a specific industry or market.

In this case, ABC Corporation has exclusive rights to produce and sell the drug due to the patent they hold. This means that other companies wanting to enter the market and produce a similar drug would face legal restrictions and would not be able to do so without infringing on ABC Corporation's patent rights. This high barrier to entry gives ABC Corporation a competitive advantage and the ability to maintain a monopoly or dominant position in the market for the drug that prevents frowning. It limits the ability of other firms to compete with ABC Corporation and reduces the likelihood of new entrants entering the market. So, to summarize, the example you provided of ABC Corporation holding a patent on the drug that prevents frowning represents a high barrier to entry.

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If the physician tested for automated CBC and automated differential wbc count, hepatitis b surface antigen (HbsAg),rubella antibody, qualitative syphilis test, RBC antibody screening, ABO blood typing and Rh (D) blood typing, what will you code

Answers

Answer:

Obstetric panel

Explanation:

The obstetric panel has a test code of 20210 with CPT codes of 80055 which includes a Complete Blood Count with White Blood Cell Differential Count, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen, RPR Screen/Reflex Titer/FTA, Rubella Immunity (IgG), and Type/Rh/Antibody Screen (Prenatal).

Irma Pueblo called the cardiology clinic and stated that last evening she had a strange event occur in which she felt like her body was frozen—she could neither move nor could she speak. She said the event probably only lasted a minute or so but it seemed like eternity. The clinician asked Irma to come in for an ECG, which she did. The results of the ECG showed an elevated ST segment in two contiguous leads and the T wave appeared rounded. Would this ECG signify a medical emergency? What may be occurring in Irma's heart? How could you tell if this is a new injury? Explain your answers.

Answers

This ECG would signify a medical emergency. Irma's heart could be failing, signifying a myocardial infarction.

What does ST segment alteration mean?

The acute elevation of the ST segment on the electrocardiogram, is one of the first signs of acute myocardial infarction, and is generally associated with the acute and complete occlusion of a coronary artery.

With this information, we can conclude that this ECG would signify a medical emergency. Irma's heart could be failing, signifying a myocardial infarction.

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an order is for 10mg of medication, on hand the vials contain 20mg/mL how many milliliters must be dispensed?

Answers

Answer:

0.5ml

Explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

The dose of the medication must be equal to 10mg, and we know that the vials contain 20mg/ml

This means that in each milliliter of the solution, we have 20mg of the medication, but we only want to give 10mg, so we must use half of a milliliter.

you can also calculate this by:

Amount needed/amount of the medicament in volume

10mg/(20mg/ml) = (1/2) ml = 0.5ml

Question 9 The mediastinum contains the pleural cavities. contains the pericardial cavity. separates the pleural cavities. separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity. E contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity. Question 10 Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the System 4 Points 4 Points Last saved 11:30:29 AM

Answers

9. The correct option is d. The mediastinum separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity.

10. Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the digestive system.

9. The mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity located between the two pleural cavities. It divides the thoracic cavity into two halves and contains various structures, including the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, thymus, and lymph nodes. The mediastinum also includes the pericardial cavity, which is the space surrounding the heart and contains the heart itself. Therefore, the correct answer is that the mediastinum separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity.

10. The lungs are vital organs of the respiratory system responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during breathing. Similarly, the liver is a vital organ of the digestive system involved in multiple functions, such as producing bile for digestion, metabolizing nutrients, detoxifying harmful substances, storing vitamins and minerals, and synthesizing various proteins. The lungs primarily facilitate respiration, while the liver plays a central role in digestion and metabolism. Therefore, the lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the digestive system.

The mediastinum is a complex anatomical region with various structures and compartments, each serving specific functions. Further exploration can provide a deeper understanding of the mediastinum's subdivisions, contents, and clinical significance. Additionally, studying the functions and significance of the liver in the digestive system can broaden knowledge about its role in maintaining overall metabolic and digestive processes.

Question 9: Which of the following statements about the mediastinum is correct?

a) The mediastinum contains the pleural cavities.

b) The mediastinum contains the pericardial cavity.

c) The mediastinum separates the pleural cavities.

d) The mediastinum separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity.

e) The mediastinum contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity.

Question 10: In terms of body systems, the relationship between lungs and the respiratory system is similar to the relationship between which organ and system?

a) Heart and circulatory system

b) Liver and digestive system

c) Brain and nervous system

d) Kidneys and excretory system

The original question had incorrect formatting and options, so I have rephrased them for clarity.

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Sumaya is ordered ceftazidime PO 9mg/kg per day. Her weight is 10kg. Calculate Sumaya's dosage for the day

Answers

Answer:

Sumaya's dosage for the day is 90mg

Explanation:

Given

\(PO=9mg/kg\) --- daily

\(Weight = 10kg\)

Required

The daily dosage

To do this, we simply multiply Sumaya's weight and the dose of PO

So, we have:

\(Dosage = PO * Weight\)

\(Dosage = 9mg/kg * 10kg\)

\(Dosage = 90mg\)

Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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SOMEONE QUICK ONLY 1 BLOOD BAG LEFT OXYGEN IS LOW BLOOD IS LEAKING HOW DO I STOP MY PATIENT FROM BLEEDING OUT!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO BEST ANSWER PLEASE HELP

Answers

Answer:

Neither oxygen supplementation nor the blood bag is going to help your patient to stop bleeding out, or even bleed less. You need to locate the site of trauma and apply direct pressure as well as using gauze or other materials to assist in blocking the open wound depending how large it is.

Explanation: that is the explanation ^^

2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from

Answers

The online pharmacy store offers   Privacy and convenience. Option C

What is an online pharmacy store?

We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.

This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.

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When things get hard, you can rely on your to dig in deep and continue working toward your goal

Answers

Answer:

knowing your purpose can be the booster to grit that can help you succeed.

what are the content of the carpal tunnel​

Answers

The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway in the wrist that contains the median nerve and several tendons.

The content of the carpal tunnel includes nine flexor tendons that originate in the forearm and attach to the fingers, as well as the median nerve that supplies sensation to the thumb, index, middle, and part of the ring finger. The tendons are responsible for flexing the fingers and wrist, while the median nerve controls the muscles in the thumb and some of the muscles in the hand.

The carpal tunnel can become compressed or inflamed, causing carpal tunnel syndrome, which can lead to pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand and wrist. This can be caused by repetitive movements, injury, arthritis, or hormonal changes. Treatments for carpal tunnel syndrome include rest, ice, splints, and sometimes surgery to relieve pressure on the median nerve.

It is important to maintain proper ergonomics and avoid repetitive movements that can strain the wrist to prevent carpal tunnel syndrome. Stretching exercises and taking breaks during repetitive tasks can also help prevent carpal tunnel syndrome from developing.

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Will you sink into complacency and selfishness, or will you experience the pleasure of creativity and renewal? According to Erik Erikson, this is the crisis of:

Answers

Answer:

num sei fazer isso NÃO aaaaaaaah João Pedro

After a divorce occurs, the recovery period usually does not start for about 6 months after the divorce.1 year after the divorce. 3 months after the divorce. 1 month for every year of marriage.

Answers

The recovery period after a divorce can vary for each individual and there is no specific time frame that applies to everyone. However, research suggests that the recovery period usually does not start for about 3-6 months after the divorce.

It is important to note that the healing process can take much longer than this and may vary based on factors such as the length of the marriage, the reason for the divorce, and the individual's coping mechanisms. Some experts suggest that it can take at least one year after the divorce to fully recover, while others suggest that it takes one month for every year of marriage. Ultimately, it is important to seek support and take the necessary steps to prioritize self-care during this difficult time.

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four-year-old maria will only drink liquids at breakfast. how could her parents respond? quizlet

Answers

Explanation:

Four-year-old Maria will only drink liquids at breakfast. How could her parents respond? enough money to buy food. consult a registered dietitian nutritionist who works with children who have special needs.

a) Write the negation for these propositions: i. The sun is shining but it is raining today. You are not allowed to enter the code. If I go to shop then I will buy a soft drink. ii. iii. (3 marks) b) The symbols p, q, r and s define the following propositions. p: It is Covid-19 endemic. q: You will be infected. r: You will stay quarantine at home. s: You will take suitable medicine. Represent each of the statements below using the defined symbols and logical connectives. i. If you will take suitable medicine or it is Covid-19 endemic, then you will not stay quarantine at home. (2 marks) ii. Either it is Covid-19 endemic, you will take suitable medicine, or you will not be infected. (2 marks)

Answers

a) Negation of the propositions:

i. Negation: The sun is not shining or it is not raining today.

ii. Negation: You are allowed to enter the code.

iii. Negation: If I go to the shop, then I will not buy a soft drink.

b) Logical representation using defined symbols:

i. If (s or p), then not r.

ii. (p or s) or not q.

a) To negate a proposition, we typically negate each component or reverse the logical connectives used in the original statement.

In the first proposition, the negation replaces "and" with "or" and negates both conditions. The original statement states that both the sun is shining and it is raining, so the negation states that either the sun is not shining or it is not raining.

In the second proposition, the negation simply states the opposite of the original statement. If the original statement says "You are not allowed to enter the code," the negation states "You are allowed to enter the code."

In the third proposition, the negation negates the outcome of the second clause. If the original statement says "If I go to the shop, then I will buy a soft drink," the negation states "If I go to the shop, then I will not buy a soft drink."

b) Using the defined symbols p, q, r, and s:

i. The statement "If you will take suitable medicine or it is Covid-19 endemic, then you will not stay quarantine at home" can be represented as (s ∨ p) → ¬r, where ∨ represents the logical OR, → represents implication, and ¬ represents negation.

ii. The statement "Either it is Covid-19 endemic, you will take suitable medicine, or you will not be infected" can be represented as (p ∨ s ∨ ¬q), where ∨ represents the logical OR and ¬ represents negation.

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As a Medical Technologist, what would like to contribute in medical field.

Answers

Answer:

Hi here goes my answer and I hope this may help you, may you have a successful day. Look down there goes the answer!

Here goes my answer:

The restorative technologist inquiries about and creates modern specialized applications for the healthcare industry, as a rule at a clinic or autonomous restorative research facility. They help restorative experts by analyzing the patient’s natural tests and contribute to the patient’s wellbeing arrange by diagnosing and making a treatment procedure.

Explanation:

Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of marijuana use?

A.
Lower learning capabilities
B.
Weaker communication skills
C.
Increased memory
D.
Shorter attention span

Answers

Answer:

I think it's increased memory

Answer:

its c. increases memory

A 19 year old patient sitting in the waiting room experiences a grand mal seizure. What should cheryl the medical assistant do to prevent injury to the patient. After the seizure the patient needs to be placed in the recovery position maintain her airway. Explain how to place her in this position.

Answers

Answer:

Protect them from injury by helping them to the floor and clearing away furniture or other items. Do not put anything in their mouth as it could lead to injury. Do not try to stop their movements. You may remove eyeglasses or other items that could cause injury. Time the seizure, call 9-1-1 if it lasts longer than 5 minutes. Reassure them and try to help them stay calm . Gently help them roll onto their side and push the angle of the jaw forward to assist with breathing,  this is the recovery position

Explanation:

The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) should be administered when? What four areas does the DDST focus on? Give two (2) examples of each.

Answers

The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is an instrument for the early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years to identify children who may require intervention. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.

The personal-social domain involves social behavior and interactive play. Here are two examples of personal-social domain items: follows a moving object with their eyes and offers a toy to an adult to be shared.The fine motor-adaptive domain focuses on a child's eye-hand coordination, small muscle development, and precision. Here are two examples of fine motor-adaptive domain items: imitates vertical strokes with a pencil or crayon and stacks blocks or rings.

The language domain covers the development of vocabulary, syntax, and grammar. Here are two examples of language domain items: points to named body parts and says two words besides "mama" and "dada."The gross motor domain covers the development of posture and movement. Here are two examples of gross motor domain items: walks on their tiptoes and walks up steps with assistance.

The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is a developmental instrument used for early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.

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When there is a code first note and an underlying condition is present the what condition should be sequenced first

Answers

Explanation:

When there is a code first note and an underlying condition is present, the underlying condition should be sequenced first. A "code first" note indicates that the underlying condition is the reason for the encounter, and the secondary code represents a manifestation or complication of that condition. Therefore, it is important to sequence the underlying condition first to accurately reflect the reason for the encounter.

For example, if a patient with diabetes mellitus (DM) presents with a foot ulcer, the appropriate sequencing would be to list DM as the primary diagnosis followed by the foot ulcer as a secondary diagnosis. This is because the foot ulcer is a manifestation of the patient's DM.

It is important to note that not all notes will have a "code first" instruction. In these cases, it is still important to accurately sequence diagnoses based on their clinical significance and relationship to the encounter.

In summary, when there is a code first note and an underlying condition is present, the underlying condition should be sequenced first to accurately reflect the reason for the encounter.

A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test performed. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 130 to 150/min, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

Immediately report the situation to the client's provider and prepare the client for induction of labor.

Encourage the client to walk around without the monitoring unit for 10 min, then resume monitoring

Offer the client a snack of orange juice and crackers.

Turn the client onto her left side.

Answers

The nurse should turn the client onto her left side. Option 4.

Nonstress test

The nonstress test is a prenatal test that evaluates the fetal heart rate (FHR) response to fetal movement. In this scenario, the client's FHR is within the normal range of 130 to 150 beats per minute, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 minutes, which is a concern.

In this situation, the nurse should first take measures to stimulate fetal movement before considering any further interventions. Turning the client onto her left side can improve blood flow to the fetus and stimulate fetal activity. The nurse should reposition the client and continue to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 10-15 minutes to see if there is any change in the fetal heart rate or fetal movement.

If there is no response to repositioning and further fetal stimulation, the nurse should report the situation to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Thus, the appropriate action for the nurse to perform in this scenario is to turn the client onto her left side and monitor the FHR for any change.

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Bone is constantly being broken down by what?

Answers

To accomplish its functions, bone undergoes continuous destruction, called resorption, carried out by osteoclasts, and formation by osteoblasts. In the adult skeleton, the two processes are in balance, maintaining a constant, homeostatically controlled amount of bone.

If a sample needs to be diluted, what should be added?

Answers

If a sample needs to be diluted it should be added solvent, the most common is usually water.

What is dilution?

Dilution is a process in which solvent is added to lower the concentration of a solution. In this process the amount of solute does not vary because it is not altered, what will be altered is the amount of solvent in which it is going to be found.

What will happen as a result is that the volume of the solution will increase at the expense of the addition of the solvent.

Therefore, we can confirm that if a sample needs to be diluted it should be added solvent, the most common is usually water.

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The nurse administered the first doses of digoxin and furosemide at 0800. What is the earliest time the second dose of digoxin can be given?



A.In the morning with breakfast.
First and second dose of digoxin prescription is the loading dose.
The second dose should be administered 6 hours after the first dose at 1400.
B. 0815 as instructed
First and second dose of digoxin prescription is the loading dose.The second dose should be administered 6 hours after the first dose at 1400
C. 1400 as instructed
instructed.
Pay attention to order details. First and second dose of digoxin prescription is the loading dose. The second dose should be administered 6 hours after the first dose at 1400

Answers

The nurse administered the first doses of digoxin and furosemide at 0800. The earliest time the second dose of digoxin can be given is at (C) 1400 (2 PM).

According to the instructions provided, the first and second doses of digoxin are part of the loading dose. In this case, the second dose should be administered 6 hours after the first dose.

It's important to follow the specific timing instructions for medications to ensure their effectiveness and safety for the patient.

Since the first dose was given at 0800 (8 AM), adding 6 hours would result in 1400 (2 PM). Therefore, option C is the correct choice, and the nurse should administer the second dose of digoxin as instructed at 1400.

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Complete question:

The nurse administered the first doses of digoxin and furosemide at 0800. What is the earliest time the second dose of digoxin can be given?

a. In the morning with breakfast.

b. 0815 as instructed

c. 1400 as instructed.

d. 0900 as instructed

Collection of a wound culture has been ordered for a client whose traumatic hand wound is showing signs of infection. When collecting this laboratory specimen, which action should the nurse take?.

Answers

To ensure that the patient's treatment plan is successful, the nurse must employ evidence-based methods to get a high-quality specimen and avoid contamination..

what is the importance of the treatment plan?

Treatment plans are crucial because they serve as a road map for the healing process and give you and your therapist a means to gauge how well therapy is going. It's crucial that you participate in the development of your treatment plan because it will be specific to you.

Which four elements make up the treatment plan?

Identifying the issue statements, developing goals, defining targets to achieve those goals, and implementing treatments are the four processes required to create an effective substance abuse treatment plan

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Your umbilicus (​bellybutton​) is (​anterior/posterior​) to your tushy.

Answers

the bellybutton is anterior to the butt
The belly button is in posterior to your

monica has been trying to lose weight for about a year. throughout the past year, she has educated herself on the guidelines of good nutrition and exercise. despite knowing that she needs to change her lifestyle, she is frustrated with her inability to lose weight and wants to quickly start losing weight. she is trying to lose 5 to 10 pounds as soon as possible because she feels that gradual changes are disappointing, and she is unable to commit to a gradual change. as a result, she ends up overeating and does not exercise. for her most recent diet, she decides to try a popular low-calorie weight-loss approach and adhere to the following program: day 1: fruits only, day 2: vegetables only, day 3: fruits and vegetables only, day 4: six bananas and milk, days 5 and 6: tomatoes only, and day 7: eat whatever you want. in addition to the diet, monica exercises once per day for a short period of time if she has time. which type of diet would most likely result in slightly higher weight loss amounts for monica?

Answers

Monica should try a calorie-restricted diet in order to quickly start losing weight. This type of diet involves reducing the number of calories consumed each day and will likely result in higher weight loss amounts.

To begin the diet, Monica should start by eating only fruits on Day 1. On Day 2, she should consume only vegetables, and on Day 3, she should have a combination of both fruits and vegetables. On Day 4, she should eat six bananas and milk. On Days 5 and 6, she should eat tomatoes only,


By following this diet and exercising regularly, Monica should start to see the results of her weight-loss efforts. It is important to note, however, that any diet should be done safely and with medical guidance. Additionally, if a diet is not accompanied by regular exercise, it will be difficult to sustain long-term weight-loss.

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Ina shoots a large marble (Marble A, mass: 0.08 kg) at a smaller marble (Marble B, mass: 0.05 kg) that is sitting still. Marble A was initially moving at a velocity of 0.5 m/s, but after the collision it has a velocity of 0.1 m/s. What is the resulting velocity of marble B after the collision? Be sure to show your work for solving this problem along with the final answer. Find the length of the missing side in simplest radical form. which theorist would state that the biggest sexual organ is the brain? vector a has magnitude 4 m and is directed to the south. vector a has magnitude 3 m and is directed to the east. what are the magnitude and direction of s e? a. 5 m, southeast b. 1 m, southwest c. 5 m, southwest d. 1 m, southeast How many valence electrons are there in the P3ion?A 3B 5C 8D 15E 18 Which types of reinforcement are intended to weaken a behavior?Negative reinforcementPositive reinforcementExtinction Punishment A ball falls off the roof and accelerates downwards at a rate of -9.8 m/s^2. If it falls for 2.7 seconds, what displacement will itmove? What is the positive square root of 9 over 16? As shoppers left a supermarket, they were asked if they used a shopping list and if they bought more items than they expected. The table contains the results.Bought only the expected items Bought more items than expected Bought one expected item Bought more expected items Row TotalsHad a shopping list 0.43 0.17 0.60Did not have a shopping list 0.22 0.18 0.40Column Totals 0.65 0.35 1.00If a customer purchased more items than planned, what is the likelihood that the customer used a shopping list? Round your answer to two decimal places. 0.66 0.49 0.28 0.17 KRJ Enterprises reported this year sales of $404 million, earnings before income taxes of $102.4 million, and tax expense of $18.2 million. If sales are projected to increase by 3.8% next year, what would be the projected tax expense for next year a sample of element x contains 90 percent 35x atoms, 8.0 percent 37x atoms, and 2.0 percent 38x atoms. the average atomic mass is closest to The slope of a distance-versus-time graph shows an object's.A. speedB. time of travel.C. distance traveled.D. None of the other answer choices during the of policing, corruption of major city police departments was rampant. a. community era b. technological era c. political era d. reform era Bob wants to buy a TV that costs $100. He plans to save $5 per week. How many weeks w will it take Bob to save $100? a(n) contract is illegal from the beginning and may not be enforced by either party; a(n) contract is legal but permits one party to escape, if he or she so wishes. which abiotic factor in an ecosystem helps to control population size?A. plant growth B. plenty of sunlight C. species of animalsD. availability of space 4) Gas mileage is the number of miles you can drive on a a gallon of gasoline.A test of a new car results in 450 miles on 20 gallons of gas. How far couldyou drive on 40 gallons of gas? What is the car's gas mileage? A patient who is on medications that block the RAAS is feeling faint during exercising. While being monitored on a treadmill, the doctor sees that his blood pressure remains low instead of increasing with his level of activity. She explains that his medication is: Which of the following defines a transposon? A DNA mutation where a gene is transcribed in reverse A group of genetic elements that typically code for proteins A group of genetic elements that can move to different locations within the genome A genetic element that causes a diseases in humans Please help me fill the graph!!!