When caring for a patient with a fever who is receiving ice packs and/or a cooling blanket, the observation that should be reported to the registered nurse is the patient's body temperature.
What is a cooling blanket?The nurse should monitor the patient's temperature frequently, especially during the first few hours of cooling therapy, to assess the effectiveness of the intervention.
In addition to temperature, the nurse should also monitor the patient's skin for signs of skin irritation or injury, such as redness, blisters, or frostbite, which can occur with prolonged exposure to cold therapy. The nurse should assess the patient's comfort level and provide appropriate measures to relieve discomfort, such as adjusting the cooling therapy or administering pain medication.
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The doctor orders physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of a urine sample as a(n):
a. IVPB.
b. CT.
c. BUN.
d. UA.
e. RP
d. UA. UA stands for urinalysis, which involves the physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of a urine sample.
To explain further, physical evaluation includes observing the color, clarity, and odor of the urine, while chemical evaluation involves testing for the presence of substances such as glucose, protein, and nitrites. Microscopic evaluation involves examining the urine sample under a microscope to look for red and white blood cells, bacteria, and other abnormalities.
The other options listed in the question are not related to the evaluation of a urine sample. IVPB stands for intravenous piggyback, which is a way to administer medication through an IV. CT stands for computed tomography, which is a type of imaging test. BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, which is a blood test used to evaluate kidney function. RP is not a common medical abbreviation and is not related to the evaluation of a urine sample.
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Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of which of the following?
a. carbohydrates only
b. lipids only
c. proteins only
d. carbohydrates and lipids only
e. carbohydrates and proteins only
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of lipids only (b).
Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (lipids). When we consume a meal that contains fats, bile is released into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to aid in the digestion process.
Bile contains bile salts, which help emulsify fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat molecules, allowing pancreatic lipase (an enzyme) to efficiently break them down into fatty acids and glycerol.
If there is a blockage in the flow of bile into the duodenum, such as in cases of gallstones or a blockage in the bile duct, the digestion of lipids becomes compromised. Without sufficient bile, the emulsification of fats is impaired, making it difficult for pancreatic lipase to access and break down the fat molecules effectively. As a result, the digestion and absorption of lipids are hindered, leading to potential malabsorption and related digestive issues. The digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, on the other hand, is not directly dependent on the presence of bile and would not be significantly affected by the blockage.
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Which of the following is not a TCS food?
O A. ground beef
o
B.
shellfish
O c. sliced cantaloupe
o
D. salt
Answer:
salt
Explanation: does not need any temperature or time control regulated
The one which is not a TCS food is salt. The correct option is D.
What are TCS foods?TCS stands for temperature control safety. The food that comes under temperature control is called TCS foods. These food items are dairy products, meats, shellfishes, cooked vegetables, fruits, green leafy vegetables, etc.
Ground beef, shellfish, and sliced cantaloupe all are needed an appropriate temperature to stay fresh and edible. Otherwise, these foods will spoil. They are usually refrigerated to save.
Salt is a compound of two chemicals, sodium, and chloride. It is edible salt and is dry in nature, it can be kept in a jar or packet. It will not spoil, it does not need temperature.
Thus, the correct option is D. salt.
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Which of the following BEST describes the effects that fetal alcohol syndrome has on a child's mental abilities?
Answer:
it causes them to loose ability ro do things and when the come out of the womb the might not cry
Explanation:
because the alcohol is going into the fetals brain system and organs and they have not gotten that much strenght
Answer:
(Insert something)
Explanation:
The effects that Fetal alcohol syndrome has on a child's mental abilities are Poor memory, difficulty in school, learning disabilities, and intellectual disability or low IQ just to name a few.
a style of leadership that involves nurses working with others in the healthcare team as full partners in a context of mutual respect and collaboration is associated with better nurse satisfaction. but, do studies actually show that this style of leadership can also affect better patient outcomes and fewer medical errors?
Yes, studies have shown that this collaborative and participative style of leadership, also known as transformational leadership, is associated with better patient outcomes and fewer medical errors.
The ability to influence and direct others toward the accomplishment of a common objective is referred to as leadership. In order to complete tasks and achieve goals, this can involve establishing a vision, inspiring and motivating others, making choices, and managing resources. In many contexts, including healthcare, effective leadership is essential. Leaders play a significant role in delivering high-quality care and successful patient outcomes.
This is a result of enhanced teamwork and communication among healthcare professionals, elevated motivation and job satisfaction among nurses, and an emphasis on patient-centered care.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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What is sensorineural hearing loss and how can hearing devices help with understanding speech? (Cochlear implants/hearing aids)
Answer:
hearing loss caused by damage to the inner ear or the nerve from the ear to the brain/ hearing aids are primarily useful in improving the hearing and speech comprehension of people who have hearing loss that results from damage to the small sensory cells in the inner ear called hair cells. hoped I helped you and others! :)
Explanation:
8. What is the first thing you should do after you know the scene is safe to help?
Slide 8)
a. Start CPR
b. Hook up the AED
C. Call 911
d. Do rescue breathing
Ordered:3 mg
Available:1.5 mg/tablet
How many tablets should be given?
Ordered:1000mg
Available:250 mg/tablet
How many tablets should be given?
Answer:
For me
Explanation:
The first one is 2 tablets
The second one is 4 tablets
The requested and available amounts must be compared in order to determine how many tablets should be administered. The first illustration shows a 3mg order and a 1.5mg tablet supply. As a result, since 3 mg/1.5 mg equals two tablets, the patient should receive two.
What is the second illustration to it ?In the second illustration, 1000 mg are requested, and 250 mg are offered each tablet. As a result, since 1000mg/250mg equals four tablets, the patient should receive that number of tablets.
It's crucial to keep in mind that when determining how many tablets should be administered, the requested and available amounts must be compared.
Using 1.5 mg/tablet tablets, administer 3 mg:
= 3 mg x 1.5 mg/tablet, total number of tablets
Tablets = 2 tablets in total.
As a result, 2 pills should be administered.
To provide 1000 mg using pills containing 250 mg:
There are 1000 mg in each pill, divided by 250 mg.
4 pills total, please.
As a result, 4 pills should be administered.
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Discuss at least two Hazards and patient safety
concerns associated with the major risk categories in a
practice.
The health care industry is one of the most essential in the world. Many medical facilities exist in various parts of the world, but one thing remains constant: the importance of providing quality care. Medical errors are a significant risk factor for patient safety, which can result in hazardous outcomes.
The following are the significant risk categories in a medical practice that might create hazards and patient safety concerns:
Environmental Hazards The healthcare sector should always consider environmental factors that can harm patients in its care. These dangers, which might include physical risks, biological hazards, hazardous chemicals, and others, should always be kept in mind. Environmental dangers should be evaluated using a risk management strategy that includes planning, implementation,
and control of environmental risk factors. Infection Control RisksInfection prevention and control are two essential principles that underpin all clinical operations. Infection control is a critical element in maintaining patient safety in the healthcare system. Patients are susceptible to healthcare-associated infections, and healthcare workers must remain vigilant to avoid the spread of illnesses.
Furthermore, it is critical to understand the pathogen's source, mode of transmission, and infection prevention measures to minimize infection risk in healthcare workers and patients.
hazards and patient safety concerns in healthcare practice come in various forms and can be mitigated using a risk management strategy. To provide a safe environment for patients, it is critical to take measures to safeguard them from environmental hazards and healthcare-associated infections.
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What is a key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs?
A key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs is referred to as concurrent physician query and is denoted as option B.
What is Clinical documentation?This summarizes a patient's encounter with a healthcare professional and contains information about a patient's medical care which is entered in a medical record by an assigned person.
Concurrent physician query on the other hand, allows the relevant diagnosis done by the doctor to be noted while care is being rendered to the patient.
This helps to improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs due to the detailed information about the patient which is contained in the records.
This is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
Retrospective coding reviewConcurrent physician queryRetrospective physician query.Group physician education.Which athlete is more likely to be at higher risk for vitamin deficiency, because it is common for them to reduce their overall energy intake?.
Female basketball players are more likely to be at higher risk for vitamin deficiency, because it is common for them to reduce their overall energy intake.
The human body and a person's general health depend on vitamin D. Depending on their diet, individuals will require different amounts of energy and vitamin D. It's also crucial to remember that a person's blood level of vitamin D is influenced by their age, weight, and amount of sun exposure.
It is advised that consumers take supplements in order to make sure they are getting enough vitamin D. However, due to gloomy days or being indoors during the winter, some people may not receive enough sunlight and energy.This may result in deficient signs such muscle weakness, exhaustion, and skin rashes.
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Lenco Industries has cost of goods manufactured of $65 000 in May. The finished goods inventory at the end of May was $20 000 and the cost of goods sold during May was $75 000. The inventory in finished goods at the beginning of May was: $5000. $30 000. $10 000. $20 000
Answer:
The correct answer is:
$30,000
Explanation:
ending inventory = $20,000
sales = $75,000
Manufactured goods = $65,000
Beginning inventory = ???
1. First let us calculate the difference between the cost of goods sold and the cost of goods manufactured, in order to determine the goods from alternative sources order than manufacturing. This is done as follows:
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = (sales) - (manufactured goods)
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = 75,000 - 65,000 = $10,000
This means that out of the $75,000 worth of goods sold, $10,000 was from a source other than manufacturing which can be accurately predicted to be the beginning inventory
2. Next, to calculate the total beginning inventory, we will add the goods sold from the beginning inventory and the ending inventory.
Beginning inventory = (Goods from sources other than manufacturing ) + ending inventory
Beginning inventory = 10,000 + 20,000 = $30,000
Note, since the sales are more than the manufactured goods, the excess is from beginning inventory
HURRY
Which trait gained during childhood will help a young adult succeed?
A child’s increase in fine motor skills will allow for lasting friendships in adulthood.
A child’s sense of right and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
A child’s increase in gross motor skill will allow for vision acuity in adulthood.
A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Answer: B
A child's sence of rights and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
Answer:
the last one A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Explanation:
Cause and effect if a child is lease dependent on their parents, that will allow for more things without their parents like money.
1. Barbara chooses a baked potato for dinner. The potato weighs 7.95 oz. How many calories is her potato? ________________ calories
Answer: Your answer to your question is 1739.0625 calories.
Explanation: Hope my answer helped you! Plz, mark my answer Brainliest! Thank you!
Food labels depict the nutritional information that the item contains with its calories. A potato weighing 7.95 oz has 1739.0625 kcal.
What are calories?Calories are defined as the measurement unit of the energy a person consumes from the food they eat or drink. Calories intake depends on the age and the profession given in the Dietary Guidelines.
Given,
Weight of potato = 7.95 oz
As it is known, 1 oz = 218.75 kcal
Then, 7.95 = 7.95 × 218.75
= 1739.0625 kcal
Therefore, 1739.0625 kcal is present in the potatoes.
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If you are in an accident and submit an insurance claim which results in a settlement and payment, you can't also personally sue the individual. This illustrates what principle of insurance?
If you are in an accident and submit an insurance claim which results in a settlement and payment, you can't also personally sue the individual. This illustrates what principle of insurance of subrogation.
Subrogation is the legal right held by most insurance carriers to legally pursue a third party that caused an insurance loss to the insured. This is done in order to recover the amount of the claim paid by the insurance carrier to the insured for the loss.
Essentially, subrogation prevents the insured from receiving a double recovery for the same loss, first from the insurance carrier and then from the third party responsible for the loss. So, if you are in an accident and submit an insurance claim which results in a settlement and payment, you can't also personally sue the individual because the insurance carrier has the right to subrogate or pursue the third party for the loss.
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Study the diagram showing the range of temperature in the Earth’s layers. Graph of Temperature of Earth apostrophe s Layers, showing start depth at 410 kilometers and start temperature at 1,000 degrees Celsius. As depth increases to 6,370 kilometers, temperature increases to over 6,000 degrees Celsius. What does the diagram show about Earth’s interior?
Answer:
1,613°C
Explanation:
This is the temperature layer that most likely corresponds to the asthenosphere because it is the coolest region after the crust. The asthenosphere begins at a depth of around 400 kilometers and extends several hundred kilometers more before transitioning into the upper mantle.
The next temperatures probably correspond to the upper mantle, lower mantle, and inner or outer core.
Answer:
1,613°C
Explanation:
I took the test.
If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely.
Answer:
If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely decrease. This is because dehydration causes a decrease in fluid volume in the body, which can lead to an increase in the concentration of red blood cells and other formed elements in the blood. As a result, the percentage of plasma in the blood would decrease, while the percentage of formed elements would increase.
a method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent cases receive care first is called:
Answer:
triage
Explanation:
The method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent cases receive care first is commonly known as triage.
Triage is a vital process used in emergency medical situations where resources are limited, and quick decisions must be made to save lives. During triage, healthcare providers assess patients based on the severity of their condition and allocate resources based on the level of urgency.
Patients are typically classified into different categories, such as immediate, delayed, or minor, depending on their medical needs. By prioritizing patients effectively, healthcare providers can ensure that those in the most critical condition receive the necessary care first, potentially saving lives and improving outcomes.
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What best describes the I in the FITT formula recommended by ACSM for cardiorespiratory fitness for healthy, active individuals
Answer: INTENSITY
Explanation: FITT formula is used for health-related fitness and was designed by The American College of Sport Medicine (ACSM).
FITT is established to put together an efficient workout plan for aspiring to be healthy and healthy individuals.
I stands for Intensity in the FITT principle. Intensity describes the level of difficulty of an exercise. Low intensity level can be adopted at the early stage of an exercise programme and gradually increased to difficult level, in other to avoid burnout.
It is measured based on numbers. The number of sets completed, amount of weight lifted or number of repetitions accomplished, while finding your target heart rate zone and Max heart rate (MHR).
Pain in throat and loss of voice are generally a sign of
Answer:
Laryngitis
Explanation:
Answer:
"Laryngitis is contagious if it is caused by an infection. The most common signs and symptoms of laryngitis are hoarseness, loss of voice, and throat pain. Additional signs and symptoms of laryngitis in adults may include dry, sore throat, pain with swallowing, and a feeling of fullness in the throat or neck."
A 1984 study by ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a ______ treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.
A 1984 study by Ulrich found that when post-operative hospital patients were in a therapeutics treatment group, they were discharged from the hospital more quickly and reported less pain.
Therapeutics is the practice of treating and caring for a patient with the goal of preventing and treating illness or reducing pain or harm.
A patient may get treatments and therapies with the aim of curing an illness or condition. This is referred to as curative or therapeutic care. The phrases are also applied to therapies that, in the absence of a cure, slow the course of the disease.
Therapeutics, when used broadly, refers to providing the patient with all of their needs, including both illness prevention and problem-specific management.
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Patients receive injectable medications when they're incapable of taking oral medications or when
Answer:
they have an illness such as diabetes
A resident has the right to all of the following, except: Right to pick which room in the facility they want to live in Right to make phone calls Right to make decisions about what to eat Right to receive guests
A resident has the right to all of the following, except: right to pick which room in the facility.
What is a Facility?This is defined as a place or a building which is intended for a particular purpose.
It is owned by the landlord who determines who and where the resident should live hence option A was chosen.
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The size of the human genome is 3.2x109bp. The 3.2kb long fragment is to be amplified by Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) using the human genome as a template. How many cycles of PCR is necessary for the amplified target sequence at least 50% (by mass) of the total DNA in the reaction mixture. Explain how you arrived to this number.
Mass is proportional to sequence length.
Let one base pair have mass M.
Thus,
\(3.2*10^9 bp\) will have mass \((3.2*10^9) * M\)
And the 3.2kb target will have a mass of
For the total amount of amplified target sequence to constitute 50% (by mass) of the total DNA in the reaction mixture, it has to be amplified to such an extent that the total mass of the amplicon matter is also \((3.2 * 109) * M\)
PCR amplification happens geometrically, doubling the DNA target with each cycle.
Thus, if the number of cycles in N,
Then,
\((3.2 * 10^9) x M = 3.2 x 1000 x M x (2)N\\\\or 10^6 = (2)^N\\\\or 6 = N log2\\\\or N = \frac{6}{log2} = 20\)
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what type of more advanced career can be pursued after becoming established in nursing career?
Answer:
Acute Care Nurse.
Burn Unit Nurse.
Camp Nurse.
Certified Nurse Assistant.
Community Nurse.
Critical Care Nurse.
Cruise Ship Nurse.
Dermatology Nurse Practitioner.
Your patient needs to have their vitals checked before leaving the facility. The policy is that only nurses can perform this activity, and the two on shift today
are currently busy doing paperwork. Your patient has been in the clinic for several hours and is anxious to leave.
The nurses should stop the doing the paperwork and go attend to those patient if it seems forever finishing the paper and then come back to it later. it would be very annoying to have to wait a long time before the nurses attend to you and that might end up pushing those patents away from that hospital because then those patients would think they don't attend to them fast and may even end up causing a bad name for the hospitals.
What should be included in the change of shift report?It should have the patient's medical record, current medication, allergies, pain levels and pain regime plan, and discharge instructions.
Providing these sorts of pieces about your patient in your end of shift report decreases the risk of an oncoming nurse putting the patient in danger.
Thus, this could be the answer.
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PLS HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!
PROJECT: DIFFERENT HEALTH CAREER POSSIBILITIES
Directions
You have been introduced to just a few of the possible health-care careers and the advances in medicine that have created these jobs. You will research a number of different health careers and select one that interests you. After identifying at least three reliable sources, write a three-page paper that includes the following:
A description of the career
The history of this career: When was it created? What resources does it use? Was there new technology or innovation involved?
The training necessary for the career
Information about why the career interests you
Your response must do the following things:
Be written in essay format
Cover the points above
Be free of errors
Include at least three references to sources
Answer:
I am interested in becoming a veterinarian for a career. I'm going to talk about the requirements to receive a doctorate in this field and the reason I'm interested in the career. First I will need to complete a four-year undergraduate degree and earn a Doctor of Veterinary Medicine degree. This degree is commonly abbreviated as a DVM or a VMD, and it takes four years to earn.
Becoming a veterinarian is a very broad field as it involves subjects such as biology, chemistry, anatomy, physiology, zoology, microbiology, and animal science. A majority of these subjects have been around since the better part of recorded history, so I'm going to focus on zoology, microbiology and chemistry as these are more focused and relatively new and there are still some mysteries and recent advancements in these areas.
microbiology, study of microorganisms, or microbes, a diverse group of generally minute simple life-forms that include bacteria, archaea, algae, fungi, protozoa, and viruses. The field is concerned with the structure, function, and classification of such organisms and with ways of both exploiting and controlling their activities. Microbiology essentially began with the development of the microscope. Although others may have seen microbes before him, it was Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch draper whose hobby was lens grinding and making microscopes, who was the first to provide proper documentation of his observations from the 13th century onward.
Zoology is the scientific study of the behavior, structure, physiology, classification, and distribution of animals. The animal life of a particular area or time.The history of zoology before Charles Darwin's 1859 theory of evolution goes back to the organized study of the animal kingdom from ancient to modern times. Although the concept of zoology as a single field was much later, systematic study of zoology is seen in the works of Aristotle and Galen in the ancient Greco-Roman world. This work was developed in the Middle Ages by Islamic medicine and scholarship, and in turn their work was extended by European scholars such as Albertus Magnus.
Chemistry is the study of substances—that is, elements and compounds—while biology is the study of living things. However, these two branches of science meet in the discipline of biochemistry, which studies the substances in living things and how they change within an organism. The history of chemistry represents a time span from ancient history to the present. By 1000 BC, the discovery of fire, extracting metals from ores, making pottery and glazes are all examples of chemistry.
The reason this field interests me is because it is so broad and the applications for helping life with this knowledge are vast. Understanding and respecting life is important as I am only alive because of these animals and plants around me.
Explanation:
here i give back to society
In the synaptic cleft, three nursing students discussed what would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane:
1) Debra suggested that Ca++ would have to be missing to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
2) Larry stated that Ca++ would have to be missing because it is the neurotransmitter that takes the messages from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
3) Timothy thought that the secretory vesicles would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane since it contains the neurotransmitter responsible for taking the message from one membrane to the next.
(HELP NEEDED ASAP. THANK U SO MUCH)
Synapses are the communication links between neurons. The synaptic cleft, which is a space between the presynaptic axon terminal and the postsynaptic dendrite that is created when an action potential contacts. Thus, option C is correct.
What pre-synaptic to the post-synaptic membrane?Timothy reasoned that since the secretory vesicles contain the neurotransmitter necessary for transferring the message from one membrane to the next.
They would have to be absent in order to stop the action potential from travelling from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
Therefore, The presynaptic terminal, is where neurotransmitters are released from the neuron (often a spine).
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Training can improve the body's ability to transport and use oxygen no more than about?
Up to 50% of fitness gains can be lost after two months of not exercising. Different levels reverse at various rates.
Strength fitness is very resilient, so a person can maintain strength fitness by performing resistance exercise as infrequently as once a week.
What is the suggested time for a session of cardiorespiratory endurance exercise?15-20 minutes
The recommendations suggest that aerobic exercise should be done three to five days a week for 20 to 60 minutes at an intensity that achieves 55 to 90 percent of the maximum heart rate and 40 to 85 percent of the maximal oxygen uptake in order to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness and weight control.
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