Answer:
bridge, deadlift, lunge, plank, push-up, seated Russian twist
Explanation:
Plan a day’s menu (including snacks) for Olivia that contains at least 150 grams of carbohydrates without any refined sucrose (table sugar). Use the following average amounts of carbohydrates found in:
Here's a sample menu for Olivia that contains at least 150 grams of carbohydrates without any refined sucrose.
What is the breakdown of the menu?Breakfast
1 cup of oatmeal (27g carbs)1 medium banana (27g carbs)1 tablespoon of honey (17g carbs)1 cup of unsweetened almond milk (1g carb)Total: 72g carbsMorning snack
1 medium apple (25g carbs)1 ounce of almonds (6g carbs)Total: 31g carbsLunch
2 slices of whole grain bread (24g carbs)3 ounces of turkey breast (0g carbs)1/2 avocado (8g carbs)1 tablespoon of mustard (0g carbs)1 small orange (14g carbs)Total: 46g carbsAfternoon snack
1 medium carrot (6g carbs)2 tablespoons of hummus (4g carbs)Total: 10g carbsDinner
4 ounces of grilled salmon (0g carbs)1/2 cup of quinoa (20g carbs)1 cup of steamed broccoli (6g carbs)1/2 cup of roasted sweet potato (20g carbs)Total: 46g carbsEvening snack
1 cup of plain Greek yogurt (9g carbs)1/2 cup of mixed berries (8g carbs)Total: 17g carbsOverall total: 222g carbs
This menu includes a variety of whole foods and nutrient-dense options to ensure that Olivia is meeting her carbohydrate needs without relying on refined sugars.
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You are volunteering in the hospital emergency department when a patient arrives very upset and discloses a sexual assault. You are NOT a
clinician. Your role is to...
A. Listen to the information the client/patient has shared
B. Use good communication skills to convey you are listening and showing empathy
C. Advise the individual that you will share the information with emergency department staff so the appropriate help can be provided
D. all of the above
On the image above we see a sequence from left to right of jump from kneeling to squat position and from squat to vertical jump. How does the thigh of the athlete move from squat to vertical jump?
During the transition from the squat position to a vertical jump, the athlete's thigh undergoes extension, moving from a flexed position to an extended position. This extension of the thigh is facilitated by the contraction of the quadriceps muscles, which helps generate upward force and propel the body into the jump.
In the sequence from the squat position to a vertical jump, the movement of the athlete's thigh involves a transition from a flexed position to an extended position. As the athlete pushes off from the squatting position to initiate the jump, the thigh moves from a bent or flexed position to a straightened or extended position.
The extension of the thigh is primarily achieved through the contraction of the quadriceps muscles. The quadriceps femoris is a group of muscles located at the front of the thigh, consisting of the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius. When these muscles contract, they generate force and contribute to the extension of the knee joint and the movement of the thigh from a flexed to an extended position.
During the vertical jump, the extension of the thigh is important for generating upward force and propelling the body into the air. As the thigh extends, the muscles involved in hip extension, such as the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings, also contribute to the overall power and force production of the jump.
In summary, during the transition from the squat position to a vertical jump, the athlete's thigh moves from a flexed position to an extended position. This extension is facilitated by the contraction of the quadriceps muscles, generating upward force and contributing to the power and propulsion of the jump.
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Which of the following is an insight based approach to therapy?
A. Person centered
B. Gestalt C. Psychodynamic D. All of the above
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Match the food to its correct minimum internal temperature.
vegetable fried rice
leftover turkey casserole
grilled salmon steak
165°F or 74°C for less than a second
155°F or 68°C for 17 seconds
145°F or 63°C for 15 seconds
135°F or 57°C for no specific time
beef meatballs
Answer:
The minimum internal temperatures for safely cooking various types of food are established by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Below are the correct matches based on the FDA's guidelines:
- Vegetable Fried Rice: 165°F or 74°C for less than a second. This is because fried rice includes a mixture of ingredients, potentially including leftovers or pre-cooked ingredients. The FDA requires all leftovers and foods containing leftovers to be reheated to this temperature.
- Leftover Turkey Casserole: 165°F or 74°C for less than a second. As this is also a dish that includes leftovers (the turkey), it should be heated to the same temperature as the fried rice.
- Grilled Salmon Steak: 145°F or 63°C for 15 seconds. This is the recommended internal temperature for cooking fish.
- Beef Meatballs: 155°F or 68°C for 17 seconds. This is the minimum internal temperature for ground meats, including ground beef.
There's no item to match the 135°F or 57°C for no specific time temperature, which is the FDA's recommended minimum internal temperature for cooking fresh, whole cuts of red meat and commercially-raised game. However, none of the items in the list meet this category. It's also the recommended temperature for hot-held fruits, vegetables, grains, and legumes that are going to be kept warm for service.
How did the changes in your body affect your health?
Answer:
change of body can not affect your health if you take healthy foods or if you don't make diet .
it happens a person to fail to maintain his weight that's result to sickness and easly affected by diseases
it's suggested that don't skip meals even though you make your diet but don't skip meals for better health
When massive changes are there in body it affets your health because you are not use to having that health. example obesity
The public smoking of cigarettes generates costs to society from second hand smoke, therefore, cigarette PRODUCTION imposes costs on people who do not smoke.
a. True
b. False
What are ways to say no and refuse if u find yourself in a situation involving drugs
Answer:
- walk away
- have someone on the phone
- say someone is picking you up soon
- don't get peer pressured
- get a ride home as soon as you can before it gets out of hand
Explanation:
One way to say no and refuse if you find yourself in a situation involving drugs is by firmly and confidently stating "No, thank you" or "I'm not interested."
It's important to assert your boundaries and communicate your decision clearly. Additionally, you can provide reasons for your refusal, such as concerns for your health, personal values, or legal consequences.
Explaining your decision can help others understand and respect your choice. You can say, "No, thanks. I prefer to stay drug-free for my own well-being and future goals," or "I don't want to get involved with drugs because it goes against my personal values and beliefs."
It's essential to remember that saying no is your right, and you don't owe anyone an explanation. If you feel uncomfortable or pressured, it's okay to remove yourself from the situation and seek support from trusted individuals, such as friends, family, or authority figures.
Building strong refusal skills involves practicing assertiveness, setting boundaries, and being confident in your choices. It's crucial to surround yourself with a supportive network, educate yourself about the risks and consequences of drug use, and develop alternative strategies for coping with peer pressure or challenging situations.
If you or someone you know is struggling with drug-related issues, it's important to seek help from professionals, such as counselors, helplines, or treatment centers, who can provide guidance and support in dealing with substance abuse.
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drug (x) should be given at a dose rate of 500mg/75kg, how many milliliters you should give to an animal weighs 30g if you know that every Drug (x) ampoule contains 300mg/2ml.?
To administer drug (x) to an animal weighing 30 g, you should administer 0.1 milliliter (ml) of the drug because each ampoule contains 300 mg/2 ml.
To determine the number of milliliters of Drug (x) to administer to a 30g animal, we need to convert the animal's weight from grams to kilograms and then calculate the appropriate dose based on the given dose rate.
1. Convert the animal's weight from grams to kilograms:
Animal weight = 30g ÷ 1000 = 0.03kg
2. Calculate the dose based on the given dose rate:
Dose = dose x animal weight
= 500 mg/75 kg x 0.03 kg
= (500 x 0.03) mg
= 15 mg
3. Determine the required number of milliliters of medicine (x):
One ampoule contains 300 mg/2 ml.
To find the volume (in milliliters) containing 15 mg, we can set the ratio:
300 mg / 2 ml = 15 mg / X ml
Cross Multiplication and Solving for X:
300 mg x X ml = 2 ml x 15 mg
300X = 30
X = 30/300
X = 0.1 ml
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The Bahamas are made of:
volcanoes
mountains
coral
limestone
Each day, track and monitor your workout for a minimum of 30 minutes each day (min 2-3 days per week). Various workouts and exercises include:
Mile run/bike ride
Pushups/Situps
Body Squats/lower body exercises
(if you have weights, you may use those)
Write a summary detailing and explaining what your workout was and how it helped your overall mental and physical health during these troubling times. You may include, calories burned, distance walked or ran. What lifts and other exercises you may have completed that were not listed above.
Which normative system is applicable to this scenario?
(1) the law
(2) religion
(3) individual morality
(4) community mores
Question 2
Answer:
Religion is applicable to this scenario.
What benefits does Medigap insurance offer? give examples
Medigap insurance is a private insurance plan that helps pay for some of the out-of-pocket expenses that Original Medicare does not cover. Some benefits that Medigap insurance offers include:
1. Co-payment and deductible coverage: Medigap plans offer coverage for the co-payments and deductibles associated with Original Medicare. For example, Medicare Part A requires a deductible for inpatient hospital stays and Medigap plans C and F cover this deductible.
2. Additional coverage for medically necessary services: Medigap plans also offer additional coverage for medically necessary services that Original Medicare does not cover. For instance, if you need to travel outside the United States, Medigap plans C through G and M and N cover emergency medical care.
3. Access to specialists: With a Medigap plan, you can see specialists without needing a referral from a primary care physician.
4. Guaranteed acceptance: You can sign up for a Medigap plan during an open enrollment period without needing a medical exam or any other type of underwriting process.
5. Renewability: Medigap insurance is renewable as long as you continue to pay the premiums on time. You also cannot be cancelled or denied coverage due to your health status.
Examples of Medigap plans:1. Medigap Plan A: This plan provides basic coverage, including Medicare Part A co-insurance, Part B co-insurance, and blood transfusions.2. Medigap Plan F:
This plan provides the most comprehensive coverage, including coverage for Part B excess charges, Part A deductibles, and foreign travel emergencies.
3. Medigap Plan G: This plan provides comprehensive coverage like Plan F but does not cover the Part B deductible.4. Medigap Plan N: This plan provides comprehensive coverage but requires a co-payment for doctor visits and emergency room visits.
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if you're dreaming which stage of sleep are you likely in?
A. Rapid eye closure
B. Non-eye movement
C.Non- rapid eye movement
D. Rapid eye movement
Answer: I'll say D in my opinion
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT considered an organ system of the human body?
What contains alcohol in concentrations as high as 40 percent.
A. Elixirs
B. Salves
C. Solutions
D. Syrups
Answer:
Solution braddddddd.........
Answer:
solutions
Explanation:
Its the solution that contains it.
According to the modified rate of reserve exertion chart, what intensity equates to deep and forceful breathing, and makes it difficult or uncomfortable to speak doing cardio, respiratory exercise
The exerciser is probably working out at a high intensity if they are breathing heavily and can hardly speak (RPE 8-9).
What is the RPE scale for moderate intensity?At levels 12 to 14, you are in the moderate-intensity zone and it seems a little challenging, similar to brisk walking or easy running. You experience significant exertion and are in the vigorous-intensity zone at level 15 and higher, just like when you are jogging.
Which scale of the perceived effort is used to quantify the level of physical activity?
The physical exercise intensity level is gauged using the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE). Your perception of how hard your body is working is known as perceived exertion.
How much RPE is there for a high intensity?When performing high-intensity resistance training (HIRT), you should choose a weight at about a 6-7 RPE to make sure you can push yourself while maintaining proper form throughout the session. Exercises with an RPE of 8 to 9 are meant to increase muscle strength, and you'll perform fewer repetitions.
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Why is it important to understand muscle contraction and movement patterns as it applies to physical fitness?
Answer:
you can die if dont
Explanation:ok
Exercise has no positive effects on the nervous system.
Answer: what do you mean?
Explanation:
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Exercise has been shown to reduce hypertension and sympathetic nervous system activity. Exercise reduces resting blood pressure and sympathetic outflow. Exercise changes the central nervous system plasticity which leads to an alteration of the regulation of sympathetic nervous system.
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Digestion (muscles working INVOLUNTARILY), is an example of which types of muscle at work?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Skeletal
Answer: A. smooth
Explanation:
Any muscle that works voluntarily is a skeletel system. and cardiac muscles are things like the heart and lungs. I hope this helps!
Adverse Events must only be reported if the CSL Behring Product
cause the event.
True
False
This is true that Adverse Events must only be reported if the CSL Behring Product cause the event.
Any unfavorable medical development in a patient who has received a pharmaceutical product—whether or not it was brought on by therapy with the drug—is referred to as an adverse event.
A biopharmaceutical business called CSL Behring creates recombinant and plasma-derived medicinal medicines. Blood plasma derivatives, vaccinations, antivenom, and cell culture reagents are among the product categories offered by CSL. These items are utilized in a variety of medical and genetic research and production applications.
The portfolio of cutting-edge drugs offered by CSL Behring includes a wide range of recombinant and plasma-derived products for the treatment of hereditary angioedema, immune deficiencies, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, and alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency in addition to bleeding disorders, immune deficiencies, and immune deficiencies.
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HELP PLS!!!! BRAINLIEST WILL BE GIVEN!!
((psychology))
when would it NOT be a good idea for a doctor to use an EEG on a patient's brain?
A.) when the functions of smaller areas of the brain need recorded
B.) when the patient is awake and refuses anesthesia
C.) when information about the cerebral cortex is needed
D.) when the activity of neurons over large areas of the brain needs tracked
When would it NOT be a good idea for a doctor to use an EEG on a patient's brain is when the patient is awake and refuses anesthesia. Thus, option "B" is correct.
What is brin and its different parts?A brain can be defined as an organ of soft nerve tissue that is found in the skull of vertebrates and it's typically responsible for the coordination of nervous activities, intellect and sensation.
The human brain consists of various sections and these includes;
I. Anterior Cingulate Cortex (ACC) which resembles a bow or collar surrounding the frontal part of the corpus callosum. This is the frontal part of the cingulate cortex which helps to make complex cognitive functions such as impulse control, decision-making, emotions and empathy.
II. Ventral prefrontal cortex in humans are interconnected with the brain and are responsible for the processing of risk, empathy, fear and social decision-making
III. The Cerebral Cortex: this part of the brain primarily comprises of grey matter, foldable sheets of neurons and forms its outermost layer. Therefore, cerebral cortex is known as the outermost layer of the brain (cerebrum) and thus, makes up half of its weight. It is about 2.5 millimeters in thickness and as such it's able to fold.
Thus, option "B" is correct.
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Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an________a surgical removal of tissue, performed to treat this condition.
Answer:
Margo Spencer was diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma affecting her left eye. She is scheduled to have a/an iridectomy a surgical removal of tissue, performed to treat this condition.
Explanation:
An iridectomy is a surgical procedure to remove part of the iris and restore the drainage of the aqueous humor from the eye. It is used in the treatment of closed-angle glaucoma or iris melanoma. In the iridectomy, part of the iris is removed to relieve glaucoma or prevent the malignant tumor from spreading. Because it is an invasive method, an operating room is required and is performed under general anesthesia. Using a microscope, the surgeon proceeds to make a small incision in the cornea so that a small portion of the iris can then be removed.
A dentist examines a patient for dental Carie’s and noted the presence of frank lessions which observation contributed to this diagnosis?
The presence of "frank lesions" contributed to the diagnosis of dental caries.
The medical name for tooth decay or cavities is "dental caries". "Frank lesions" are defined as apparent or plainly discernible spots of dental decay.
A dentist can determine the existence of dental caries in a patient when they see these apparent cavities or damaged areas on the teeth.
The dentist can propose the right treatments, such as fillings or other dental operations, to address the decay and restore the tooth's health by detecting and determining the level of dental caries.
To preserve excellent oral health and stop additional issues, regular dental checkups and early diagnosis of dental caries are crucial.
Thus, the identification of dental caries was aided by the discovery of "frank lesions".
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It is recommended that CPR training be received how often?
Answer:
Every 2 years.
Explanation:
If you're required to be CPR certified, you need to renew it every 2 years.
What are three types of errors for which a health care organization needs to be prepared: skill-based, rule-based, and knowledge-based errors. Compare and contrast them . How can an organization reduce the likelihood of each of these errors occurring in a health care setting?
Which laws regulate car driver behavior
Answer:
The laws that control the behaviour of a car driver is the right of way rules.
Explanation:
Question 2
When you are catching the ball to above your head (north) your four fingers should be
A. facing down towards the ground
B. facing east
C. facing west
D. facing up towards the sky
What does the "A" stand for in the acronym ASSERT?
Automated System Security Evaluation and Remediation Tracking
thefreedictionary
Muscles tend to grow thicker and get stronger the more a person exercises them. How might ideas from the previous lesson of mitosis explain how muscles get stronger?
Please help, and answer in a simple format thank you so so much!!
Answer:
ow often do skeletal muscle cells go through mitosis? ... You might be thinking, “Hey, some people grow their muscles really big!” That's true, but they do it by increasing the size of the cells and the ... They have to be strong and not pull apart. ... When you exercise, the muscle fibers grow and create more ...
Explanation:
thank for the free points