Answers
Dimenhydrinate used to prevent motion sickness, and prescribed every few hours (up to six times a day)
Dimenhydrinate belongs to a group of medications called antiemetics. This medication is used to prevent and treat motion sickness as well as nausea and vomiting associated with various conditions such as chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery. It is also used to treat nausea and spinning sensations (vertigo) due to Ménière's disease and other conditions that cause these symptoms.
Dimenhydrinate works to relieve or prevent nausea and vomiting by affecting the vomiting centre in the brain. Most people can expect some relief of nausea and vomiting within one hour of taking any form of dimenhydrinate. It works to relieve vertigo by affecting the brain and the inner ear.
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Related Questions
What makes opioids, or other drugs, so difficult to stop abusing once you are addicted?
Answers
Answer:
Opioids trigger the release of endorphins which muffles your perception of pain and boost feelings of pleasure, creating a temporary but powerful sense of well-being. When the dose wears off, you will often yourself wanting those good feelings back, as soon as possible.
Explanation:
If a drug partly blocks a membrane’s potassium channels, how does it affect the action potential?
Answers
In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.
Answers
Answer:
In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) healthy relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.
Explanation:
Health practioners learn communication strategies that allow them to better connect with users of health systems, provide patients with clear information to give them the opportunity to make important and informed decisions throughout the disease process, facilitating to feel them more involved in it and in many cases minimizing the suffering that comes with having a pathology.
When a person goes to the health consultations, they need a solution to certain needs that have arisen related to their well-being. Faced with this situation and in the first place, it requires clear and truthful information from practioners, in this way, the patient can responsibly assume his/her situation and the care to which him/her must submit. In a healthy relationship between practioners and patients, it is important to evaluate the information the patient gives and the appropriate measures in each case, making them more individualized recommendations. The factors that determine the satisfaction of this healthy relationship by patients are: accessibility, responsiveness and understanding, patients manifest a series of needs that, in order to be satisfied, must be previously understood and valued. In this healthy relationship, patients especially value that practioners listen to them and establish affective and assertive communication with them in a language understandable by both parties. These factors are intangible variables, since they are the individual or group behaviors, aptitudes and attitudes that decisively contribute both to the conformation of the patient's perceptions and their satisfaction, and to the value that the health center acquires for them: behavior and motivation of the staff, beliefs, norms and ways of thinking of the organization.
What best describes the I in the FITT formula recommended by ACSM for cardiorespiratory fitness for healthy, active individuals
Answers
Answer: INTENSITY
Explanation: FITT formula is used for health-related fitness and was designed by The American College of Sport Medicine (ACSM).
FITT is established to put together an efficient workout plan for aspiring to be healthy and healthy individuals.
I stands for Intensity in the FITT principle. Intensity describes the level of difficulty of an exercise. Low intensity level can be adopted at the early stage of an exercise programme and gradually increased to difficult level, in other to avoid burnout.
It is measured based on numbers. The number of sets completed, amount of weight lifted or number of repetitions accomplished, while finding your target heart rate zone and Max heart rate (MHR).
Jason studies Spanish for three years, and then switches to Pashto. When asked to remember Spanish vocabulary he can’t, instead he can only remember Pashto vocabulary. This is an example of ________ interference.
active
inactive
proactive
retroactive
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Answer:
Inactive
Explanation:
he was not active in spanish
The principal purpose of the National Institutes of Health is to:
Answers
HURRY
Which trait gained during childhood will help a young adult succeed?
A child’s increase in fine motor skills will allow for lasting friendships in adulthood.
A child’s sense of right and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
A child’s increase in gross motor skill will allow for vision acuity in adulthood.
A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Answers
Answer: B
A child's sence of rights and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
Answer:
the last one A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Explanation:
Cause and effect if a child is lease dependent on their parents, that will allow for more things without their parents like money.
This blood cell is elevated in persons with allergies and parasitic diseases.
a. Basophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Neutrophil
d. Lymphocyte
Answers
Answer:
B I think but if I'm wrong pls tell me!
And Eosinophils for parasitic disease …!
Hormonal methods of birth control disrupt the normal regulation of ovarian cycles to prevent __________.
Answers
Hormonal strategies of start control disrupt the ordinary regulation of ovarian cycles to prevent ovulation.
The ovarian cycle includes 3 phases: follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase, at the same time as the uterine cycle is break up into menstruation, proliferative section and secretory section.
The ovarian cycle governs the coaching of endocrine tissues and launch of eggs, at the same time as the menstrual cycle governs the education and safety of the uterine lining. those cycles rise up concurrently and are coordinated over a 22–32 day cycle, with a mean duration of 28 days.
The ovarian cycle controls the manufacturing and release of eggs and the cyclic launch of estrogen and progesterone. The uterine cycle governs the practise and upkeep of the lining of the uterus to acquire an embryo.
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Vitamin derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling DNA synthesis. a) B b) D O c) C d) K
Answers
So answer is a) B
Answer:
Vitimin D
Explanation:
Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, and many other biological effects.
3.2 Adding up the two equivalent fractions
Add the two equivalent fractions which now have a common denominator
Combine the numerators together, put the sum or difference over the common denominator then reduce to lowest terms if possible:
2 • (x-6) - (6 • 3) 2x - 30
——————————————————— = ———————
3 3
Answers
Answer:14
Explanation:
Imagine that a patient has damage to the semicircular canals on one side
of the head only. What would you expect to happen. (2choose1)
A.
The patient would lose one member of the pair of opponent angular motion
channels. They would therefore perceive the world as spinning.
B.
Since the damaged vestibular system cannot send any nerve impulses, nothing
would happen. The patient would simply have less good balance because he
lost half of his vestibular input.
Answers
Answer: Since the damaged vestibular system cannot send any nerve impulses, nothing would happen. The patient would simply have less good balance because he lost half of his vestibular input.
Explanation:
Robert and Felipe conducted an experiment to determine if the density of a substance affected the amount of time it takes for an object to heat up. Their data showed that density did not have an effect on the rate of heating. Sandra didn't agree with their data. She said that she would like to complete the experiment using exactly the same set up as the first experiment. What is Sandra suggesting
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer would be - she should replicate the experiment.
Explanation:
Replication of an experiment is the procedure in which a different investigator repeats the same experiment in the same set up to check if the experiment provides the same result or not.
The repetition of an experiment is performing the same experiment multiple times that is performed by you to be ensured about results. Sandra should replicate the experiment by using the exact same setup to find the data and complete the experiment.
1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
Answers
1. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study., 2. False, 3. False, 4. True, 5. Every 6 months.
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate various aspects of a proposed study, including scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects. This ensures that the study is safe, ethical, and scientifically sound.
2. This statement is false. Any communication with past study participants about a new study must be reviewed and approved by the IRB to ensure that it is not coercive and provides accurate information.
3. This statement is false. A clinical investigator can be a member of the IRB, but they cannot participate in the IRB's review of their own study.
4. This statement is true. An expedited review may be performed for minor changes to a protocol or informed consent form that pose no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. This statement is false. Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but they may choose to review them more frequently if necessary.
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substance used in the treatment of shock to elevate the blood pressure is: insulin. iodine. dopamine. cortisone.
Answers
Cortisone is a type of steroid hormone used to treat shock and elevate blood pressure.
It works by stimulating the production of glucose, a source of energy for the body, and increasing sodium retention, which helps to reduce fluid loss and raise blood pressure.
Cortisone is also used to reduce inflammation and reduce the body’s reaction to its own immune system. Cortisone is a fast-acting medication, so it can be used in severe cases of shock when other treatments have not worked.
However, cortisone does have some side effects, such as increased appetite and weight gain, and can also cause fluid retention. Cortisone should only be used under the supervision of a medical professional and should be used only when absolutely necessary.
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FILL IN THE BLANK Pulmonary edema can also develop slowly, especially when it is caused by _________________ disorders such as kidney disease and other conditions that cause fluid overload.
Answers
Pulmonary edema can also develop slowly, especially when it is caused by non cardiac disorders such as kidney disease and other conditions that cause fluid overload.
Pulmonary edoema, also known as pulmonary congestion, is an abnormal buildup of liquid in the tissue and air spaces of the lungs. It impairs gas exchange and may result in hypoxemia and respiratory failure. It is caused by either a failure of the left ventricle of the heart to effectively remove oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation (cardiogenic pulmonary edoema) or a damage to lung tissue or blood vessels of the lung (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema).
The treatment focuses on three areas: first, increasing respiratory function, second, addressing the underlying cause, and third, avoiding additional damage and ensuring complete lung recovery. Pulmonary edoema, particularly if it occurs suddenly (acutely), can result in respiratory failure or cardiac arrest owing to hypoxia. It is a defining characteristic of congestive heart failure.
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Treatment of a puncture wound includes Group of answer choices approximation of the wound edges for suturing. copious irrigation of the wound. All of the answer options brisk scrubbing of the area with a brush.
Answers
Treatment of a puncture wound includes copious irrigation of the wound.
What is irrigation of wound?Utilizing fluid for wound irrigation includes removing:
Loosely adhering cellular debris on the woundSurface microbesWound effusionDressing leftoversLingering topical substancesWound irrigation helps to maintain a moist wound environment, makes debridement easier, and speeds up wound healing.
Which wound types can be irrigated?Irrigating all wounds is possible and recommended. Granular wounds should be treated with gentle irrigation together with bandaging to safeguard the wound bed.
Do any wounds require special care when being irrigated?In wounds that are actively bleeding heavily, irrigation should not be done since it could dislodge any clots that are forming.
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Equivalents are things that are equal or have the same value. In mathematics, for example, the fraction 3/4 and the decimal are the same value
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Answer:When we say two values are equivalent, we mean that their numerical values are the same. In mathematics, transforming one value into another that is more useful in a specific context is one technique to demonstrate that two values are comparable.
In this instance, the values of the fraction 3/4 and the decimal 0.75 are the same. This can be demonstrated by dividing the numerator (3) by the denominator (4) using long division or a calculator to represent the fraction 3/4 in decimal form.
The following steps can be used to breakdown the conversion of a fraction to a decimal:
Divide the numerator (3) by the denominator (4). This division yields a value of 0.75.
With a point and as many decimal places as necessary, write the division's result as a decimal number. The outcome in this instance is 0.75.
Comparing the decimal number and the fraction, you can see that they both reflect the same value and are comparable.
Therefore, In mathematics, for example, the fraction 3/4 and the decimal 0.75 are the same value.
In mathematics, equivalents are values that represent the same quantity, such as the fraction 3/4 and the decimal 0.75.
Explanation:In mathematics, equivalents are numbers or expressions that carry the same value or represent the same quantity. The concept of equivalents is fundamental in understanding many mathematical concepts, especially fractions and decimals. As the student mentioned, 3/4 is practically the same as the decimal 0.75. This is because when they are represented on a number line, they fall on exactly the same point. Similarly, in a bag of 4 items, both 3/4 and 0.75 represent 3 items. Thus, in mathematics, we can say that 3/4 is equivalent to 0.75.
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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answers
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
1. What characteristics of Jb put him at high risk for suucide
Answers
Answer:
maybe he is showing signs and maybe he is posting this on social media and his grades are going down. but if his life is terrible not going to great for him then that might be why he is thinking that. he does not care about life anymore. he is dead inside
Explanation:
Which of the following is a new program that supplies federal funds to assist state programs?
•the Youth Education Act
•the Division of Early Childhood
•the Recovery Act
•the Childhood Service Act
Answers
Answer:
The Division of Early Childhood
Explanation:
which of the following is an example of nonhemorrhagic fever disease? cat-scratch disease brucellosis rocky mountain spotted fever q fever lyme diseases infectious monocucleosis
Answers
Cat-scratch disease, brucellosis, rocky mountain spotted fever, Q fever, and Lyme disease are examples of nonhemorrhagic fever diseases.
Infectious mononucleosis, on the other hand, is not typically associated with fever. It is characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, and enlarged spleen, but fever may or may not be present.
Nonhemorrhagic fever diseases are infectious illnesses that are characterized by the presence of fever but do not involve significant bleeding or hemorrhage. These diseases are caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, and they can result in systemic symptoms including fever, malaise, body aches, and other specific manifestations depending on the particular disease.
Therefore, the correct answer is Infectious mononucleosis.
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Tomorrow i have an endocrine system exam, can anyone please help me with it ?? I really need help, plus I couldn’t study because of personal issues, i would really appreciate it.
Answers
Who should be concerned about dehydration? An athlete participating in a triathlon a child who is ill with diarrhea an elderly man all of these choices are correct
Answers
Answer:
A child who is I'll with diarrhea
All of these choices are correct and should be concerned about dehydration.
What is dehydration?Dehydration can occur in anyone who loses more fluid than they take in, and it can be particularly dangerous for athletes, children, and elderly individuals. Athletes participating in events such as triathlons can lose significant amounts of fluid through sweating, and may need to take extra precautions to stay hydrated.
Children who are ill with diarrhea can lose fluids quickly and become dehydrated, which can be particularly dangerous for their developing bodies. Elderly individuals may be at increased risk for dehydration due to a decreased sense of thirst, and may need extra support to ensure they are drinking enough fluids.
It is important for everyone to stay aware of their fluid intake and recognize the signs of dehydration to prevent complications.
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Which mineral assists in building and maintaining healthy bones, teeth, and nervous system?
Potassium
Iron
Sodium
Calcium
Answers
Answer:
Calcium is a mineral that makes our bones and teeth strong. It helps us grow into adults with strong bones and also helps our muscles and nerves to work properly.
Explanation:
calcium make bones go brrrr
Answer:
calcium
Explanation:
drink your milk!
Consider the duties of a radiologic technologist. Which of the following is the first step in performing a diagnostic imaging examination?
A position the patient
B address patient concerns
C take images of the patient
D review image results
Answers
A nurse is assisting a client with personal hygiene care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of infection?
Answers
The nurse should practice proper hand hygiene to reduce the risk of infection during personal hygiene care.
Hand hygiene is a crucial infection control measure that healthcare professionals, including nurses, must follow to prevent the transmission of harmful microorganisms. When assisting a client with personal hygiene care, the nurse should prioritize hand hygiene before and after the procedure.
Proper hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer if soap and water are not readily available. This practice helps remove dirt, germs, and transient microorganisms from the hands, reducing the risk of infection transmission.
During personal hygiene care, the nurse should also use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, masks, and gowns, as necessary, to further prevent the spread of infection. Adhering to standard precautions and following infection control protocols, including proper disposal of waste and cleaning equipment, are additional measures that can reduce the risk of infection during personal hygiene care.
Overall, practicing proper hand hygiene is a fundamental step for nurses in reducing the risk of infection and maintaining a safe environment for both themselves and their clients.
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what strain of marijuana can i grow in 40 degrees weather
Answers
Answer:
to can calculate for popolation destiny it is imporative to divide rhe number of popolation bt the number size of the area
Explanation:
read book thats im my hope
seeing a need and meeting it without being asked is an example of
Answers
This is an example of self-reliance.
What is self-sufficient?Condition of self-sufficient. 2. Excessive self-contentment, pride, petulance.
Self-reliance refers to the state of not needing any help, support or interaction from others to survive. It is therefore a kind of autonomy. On a larger scale, a fully self-sufficient economy is called autarky.
With this information, we can conclude that self-reliance is a state in which a person does not need outside opinions.
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Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting?
Answers
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA.
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA. The level of supervision required varies based on state laws and regulations, as well as the complexity of the patient's condition and treatment plan. Generally, PTAs require direct supervision, meaning the PT must be physically present and available to give guidance and direction during the treatment session. PT aides may require indirect supervision, meaning the PT or PTA must be available by phone or other means of communication to answer questions or provide guidance as needed. It is important for the PT to establish clear expectations and guidelines for supervision to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
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