which graph shows the variation with time t of the kinetic energy of an object undergoing simple harmonic motion of period t

Answer:

One of the more important properties of sound is that its speed is nearly independent of frequency. ... Therefore, the relationship between f and λ is inverse: The higher the frequency, the shorter the wavelength of a sound wave. The speed of sound can change when sound travels from one medium to another.

Based on current data, it is estimated that about 20-25% of stars have at least one planet orbiting them within the habitable zone, where conditions could support life as we know it. However, the fraction of stars with planets increases to about 50% when considering all planets, including those outside the habitable zone.

These estimates come from data collected by NASA's Kepler spacecraft, which searched for planets by observing the periodic dimming of stars as planets pass in front of them. In addition to Kepler, other telescopes and methods have also been used to detect exoplanets, which has greatly expanded our understanding of planetary systems beyond our own solar system.

However, it is important to note that these estimates are constantly changing as new data is collected and analyzed. As technology improves, we may be able to detect even more planets and better understand their distribution around other stars.

to know more about fraction of stars click this link

brainly.com/question/29135362

#SPJ11

Answer:

16km

Explanation:

First change the minutes into hours then multiply by the distance.

(8÷60)×120=16km

Answer:

500

Explanation:

25/0.05

Given :

Walk in forward direction is 30 m .

Walk in backward direction is 25 m .

To Find :

The distance and displacement .

Solution :

We know , distance is total distance covered and displacement is distance between final and initial position .

So , distance travelled is :

D = 30 + 25 m = 55 m .

Now , we first move 30 m in forward direction and then 25 m in backward direction .

So , displacement is :

D = 30 - 25 m = 5 m .

Therefore , distance and displacement covered is 55 m and 5 m respectively .

Hence , this is the required solution .

Answer:

Resultant horizontal force = 143 N

Explanation:

Since the a gle is 30° northwest, then it means the resultant force will be horizontal and as such;

Resultant horizontal force = 165 * cos 30

Resultant horizontal force = 142.89

Approximating to a whole number gives;

Resultant horizontal force = 143 N

Answer:

food chain is a process of how food is transported to the plant and then to the animal that eats the animal. there are primary, secondary, and tertiary and then decompose.

Explanation:

plz mark my answer as the brainliest

Answer:

A hierarchical series of organisms each dependent on the next as a source of food.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!! plz mark brainliest-Lily ^_^ ( food chain also known as the Circle Of Life)

The average change in momentum for the car during the trip is 8400 kg·m/s.

What is Momentum?

Momentum is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction. The direction of momentum is the same as the direction of velocity, and its magnitude is proportional to both the mass and the velocity of the object.

Then, we calculate the final momentum of the car during the remaining 3 hours:

Final momentum during the remaining 3 hours = mass × final velocity during the remaining 3 hours = m × v2

Now, we can calculate the average change in momentum:

Average change in momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum

= (Final momentum during the first 2 hours + Final momentum during the remaining 3 hours) - Initial momentum

= [(m × v2) + (m × v2)] - (m × v1)

= 2m × v2 - m × v1

Plugging in the given values:

Mass of the car (m) = 1400 kg

Initial velocity (v1) = 32 m/s

Final velocity during the first 2 hours (v2) = 38 m/s

Average change in momentum = 2m × v2 - m × v1

= 2 × 1400 kg × 38 m/s - 1400 kg × 32 m/s

= 53200 kg·m/s - 44800 kg·m/s

= 8400 kg·m/s

Learn more about Momentum from the given ink

https://brainly.com/question/18798405

#SPJ1

(a.i) The value of the acceleration due to gravity on Earth are  9.73 m/s² and 9.8 m/s².

(b.i) The value of average acceleration due to gravity on Earth is 9.77 m/s².

(a.ii) The value of the acceleration due to gravity on Moon are  1.67 m/s² and 1.79 m/s².

(b.ii) The value of average acceleration due to gravity on Moon is 1.73 m/s².

(a.iii) The value of the acceleration due to gravity on Mars are 3.75 m/s² and 3.73 m/s².

(b.iii) The value of average acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.74 m/s².

The value of the acceleration due to gravity is calculated as follows;

h = vt + ¹/₂gt²

where;

g = ( 2h ) / t²

The value of acceleration due to gravity for Earth is calculated as;

when; h = 2.25 m, and t = 0.68 s

g = ( 2 x 2.25 ) / ( 0.68² )

g = 9.73 m/s²

when; h = 3.08 m, and t = 0.793s

g = ( 2 x 3.08 ) / ( 0.793² )

g = 9.8 m/s²

Average acceleration due to gravity = ( 9.73 + 9.8 ) / 2 = 9.77 m/s²

The value of acceleration due to gravity for Moon is calculated as;

when; h = 4.04 m, and t = 2.2 s

g = ( 2 x 4.04 ) / ( 2.2² )

g = 1.67 m/s²

when; h = 4.57 m, and t = 2.26 s

g = ( 2 x 4.57 ) / ( 2.26² )

g = 1.79 m/s²

Average acceleration due to gravity = ( 1.67 + 1.79 ) / 2 = 1.73 m/s²

The value of acceleration due to gravity for Mars is calculated as;

when; h = 4.68 m, and t = 1.58 s

g = ( 2 x 4.68 ) / ( 1.58² )

g = 3.75 m/s²

when; h = 3.55 m, and t = 1.38 s

g = ( 2 x 3.55 ) / ( 1.38² )

g = 3.73  m/s²

Average acceleration due to gravity = ( 3.75 + 3.73 ) / 2 = 3.74 m/s²

Learn more about acceleration due to gravity here: https://brainly.com/question/88039

#SPJ1

The magnitude of the current in the second wire is 2.4 A, if the magnetic field strength is found to be zero between the two wires at a distance of 2.9cm from the first wire.

When two parallel wires are present, and a current flows in one wire, then it produces a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field created by one wire affects the magnetic field produced by another wire. Due to the magnetic field interaction, a force is created between the wires. If the magnetic field strength between the wires is zero, then it means the magnetic fields of the wires cancel out.

Using Biot-Savart law, the magnetic field produced by the first wire is given by:

B₁ = μ₀I₁/2πd

where μ₀ is the magnetic constant, I₁ is the current in the first wire, and d is the distance between the two wires.

The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the current and a circular path around the wire. If two parallel wires carry current in the same direction, they attract each other, and if the current is in the opposite direction, they repel each other.

As the magnetic field strength is zero between the wires at a distance of 2.9 cm from the first wire, the magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the second wire is given by:

B₂ = μ₀I₂/2πd

At the point where the magnetic field strength is zero, the sum of the two magnetic fields is zero.

Hence, we can write:

B₁ + B₂ = 0

μ₀I₁/2πd + μ₀I₂/2πd = 0

(μ₀/2πd) (I₁ + I₂) = 0

I₁ + I₂ = 0

I₂ = -I₁

I₂ = -2.4 A

I₂ has a magnitude of 2.4 A and is flowing in the opposite direction of the first wire.

Learn more about current:

https://brainly.com/question/1100341

#SPJ11

40V is needed to push 2 amperes of current through 20 ohms of resistance.

what is ohm's law?

It states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.

V=I×R

Current equals Voltage divided by Resistance (I=V/R), Resistance equals Voltage divided by Current (R=V/I), and Voltage equals Current times Resistance (V=IR).

Given:

R=20Ω

I= 2amp

we know that,

V=I×R

V=2×20

V=40V

Thus,the voltage comes out to be 40V.

learn more about ohm's law from here: https://brainly.com/question/28238592

#SPJ4

The brass wire will stretch by approximately 2.378 × 10^-5 meters (or 23.78 micrometers) when a weight of 5.2 kN is hung from it.

To calculate the amount of stretch in the brass wire, we can use Hooke's Law, which states that the amount of stretch or deformation (ΔL) in a material is directly proportional to the applied force (F) and inversely proportional to its Young's modulus (Y) and cross-sectional area (A).

The formula to calculate the stretch is:

ΔL = (F * L) / (Y * A)

Given:

Applied force (F) = 5.2 kN = 5200 N (converted to Newtons)

Length of the wire (L) = 2.2 m

Young's modulus (Y) = 9.2 × 10^10 Pa

Cross-sectional area (A) = 4.9 mm^2 = 4.9 × 10^-6 m^2 (converted to square meters)

Plugging the values into the formula:

ΔL = (5200 N * 2.2 m) / (9.2 × 10^10 Pa * 4.9 × 10^-6 m^2)

Calculating the result:

ΔL ≈ 2.378 × 10^-5 m

Learn more about brass wire here:

https://brainly.com/question/31953747

#SPJ11

Gas particles can change to solid particles if the temperature decreases.

The state of matter of a substance is determined by its temperature and pressure. When the temperature of a gas decreases, its particles lose kinetic energy and slow down. This decrease in kinetic energy leads to a decrease in the average speed of gas particles.

As the temperature continues to decrease, the particles lose energy and move closer together. At a certain temperature known as the condensation point or the freezing point, the gas particles no longer have enough energy to overcome the intermolecular forces holding them together.

At this point, the gas undergoes a phase transition and changes into a solid. The process of gas turning into a solid is called condensation or freezing, depending on the specific substance.

During condensation, the gas particles arrange themselves in a more orderly and structured manner, forming a solid. The transition from gas to solid involves the release of energy, known as heat of fusion.

In summary, when the temperature of a gas decreases below its condensation or freezing point, the gas particles lose energy, slow down, and eventually come together to form a solid.

To know more about condensation refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28866262#

#SPJ11

Answer:

The striped magnetic pattern develops because, as the oceanic crust pulls apart, magma rises to the surface at mid-ocean ridges and spills out to create new bands of the ocean floor.

Explanation:

Answer:

The sea-floor spreading starts when the magma rises and erupts from the cracks along the mid-ocean ridges. Once the molten material solidifies, the older rock gets pushed away from the ridge and the new rock forms in the centre of the mid-ocean ridge. According to scientists, the Earth’s magnetic field is involved in this process. Since the oceanic crust contains iron, the way the rocks on the ocean floor hardened on both sides of the mid-ocean ridges are influenced by the direction of the magnetic field. As a result, it forms a pattern that resembles stripes that are alternately pointed north and south.

Or if you want a small answer:

The rock of the ocean floor contains iron. As molten material cools and hardens, the iron particles inside lines up in the direction of Earth's magnetic poles, creating a pattern of magnetized stripes.

Answer:

Joule, unit of work or energy in the International System of Units (SI); it is equal to the work done by a force of one newton acting through one metre. Named in honour of the English physicist James Prescott Joule, it equals 107 ergs, or approximately 0.7377 foot-pounds.

Answer:

The distance between the object and the mirror is X/2

Explanation:

If we look into a plane mirror, we see the image of our face situated behind the mirror. Now, if we move backwards, the image also moves backwards in the mirror so that it is always at the same distance behind the mirror as our face is in front of the mirror. Thus, the image I in a plane mirror is as far behind the mirror as the object O is in front of it. In other words, the distance of the image from the plane mirror is equal to the distance of the object from the plane mirror. We will prove this fact by using the laws of reflection and simple geometry.

From the second law of reflection, we have:Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection

So, NAO =  NAX       (angle i = angle r)

It is clear that the triangles MIA and MOA are congruent triangles and, therefore, their corresponding sides should be equal. Thus :

IM = OM

MA is a common side to both triangles  

Now, OM represents the distance of object from the mirror, and  IM represents the distance of image from the mirror .  

So, we can now say that:

Distance of image from mirror = Distance of object from mirror

Therefore, the binding energy per nucleon for V-51 is 0.0191 u, rounded to 3 significant digits.

To calculate the binding energy per nucleon for V-51, we need to understand the concept of binding energy. Binding energy is the energy required to separate a nucleus into its individual nucleons. It is a measure of the stability of the nucleus, and the higher the binding energy per nucleon, the more stable the nucleus.
To calculate the binding energy per nucleon for V-51, we first need to find the total binding energy for the nucleus. The total binding energy is the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the sum of the masses of its individual nucleons. We can use the atomic mass of V-51, which is 50.9439637 u, to calculate the total mass of the nucleus.
Next, we need to calculate the mass of the individual nucleons. We know that the atomic mass of V-51 is made up of 23 protons and 28 neutrons. The mass of a proton is 1.00728 u, and the mass of a neutron is 1.00866 u. Multiplying the number of protons by the mass of a proton and the number of neutrons by the mass of a neutron, we get a total mass of 51.91738 u.
Subtracting the total mass of the individual nucleons from the atomic mass of V-51, we get the binding energy of the nucleus, which is 0.974582 u.
Finally, to find the binding energy per nucleon, we divide the binding energy by the number of nucleons. In this case, there are 51 nucleons, so dividing 0.974582 u by 51, we get a binding energy per nucleon of 0.0191 u.

To know more about mass visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1932868
#SPJ11

The quasars are moving away from us because their spectral lines are redshifted .

What are Quasars ?

The quasars are defined as an astronomical object of very high luminosity that is found in the center of some galaxies and is powered by gas spiraling at high velocity into an extremely large black hole.

we know that , the quasar redshift enables the scientists to calculate relative size of Universe when the light was emitted, compared to today .

and the reason for which these quasars are moving away from us is due to the redshift in the quasars .

Therefore , the correct option is (c) Their spectral lines are redshifted.

The given question is incomplete , the complete question is

How do we know that quasars are moving away from us ?

(a) They get dimmer and dimmer each year.

(b) There used to be many in our galaxy, but more and more leave the Milky Way each year.

(c) Their spectral lines are redshifted.

(d) Their spectral lines are blue shifted .

Learn more about Quasars here

https://brainly.com/question/13137742

#SPJ4

Transport externalities, such as congestion, emissions, crashes, and noise, have impacts that extend beyond the immediate users. Mitigating these externalities involves aligning private costs with social costs through measures like taxes or regulations.

Transport externalities can be valued using techniques like direct costing, hedonic pricing, contingent valuation, or control costs. Externalities can occur due to both insufficient and excessive capacity, and they affect third parties beyond the primary parties involved in transportation activities.

a. Correct. Examples of transport externalities include congestion, emissions, crashes, and noise. These are negative impacts that extend beyond the direct users of transportation systems.

b. Partially correct. Mitigating transport externalities often involves internalizing the costs by making private costs align with social costs. This can be achieved through measures such as taxes, fees, or regulations that increase the private costs associated with the negative externalities.

c. Partially correct. Transport externalities can indeed be valued using direct costing or hedonic pricing techniques. These methods aim to estimate the monetary value of externalities by assessing factors such as property values, health costs, or time lost due to congestion.

d. Incorrect. Transport externalities can occur in various situations, including both when too little or too much capacity is provided. For example, congestion can result from inadequate capacity, while environmental impacts can arise from excessive capacity or vehicle usage.

e. Incorrect. Transport externalities can be valued using contingent valuation or control costs techniques, among others. Contingent valuation involves surveying individuals to elicit their willingness to pay or accept compensation for specific externalities. Control costs techniques assess the costs associated with implementing measures to control or mitigate the externalities.

f. Incorrect. Externalities by definition impact third parties, beyond the immediate users or providers involved. Externalities refer to the costs or benefits that affect individuals or entities not directly involved in a transaction or activity. These impacts can be positive or negative, but they extend beyond the primary parties involved.

To know more about Transport externalities refer to-

https://brainly.com/question/14299940

#SPJ11

Answer:

it's mass

Explanation:

A star's life cycle is determined by its mass. The larger its mass, the shorter its life cycle. A star's mass is determined by the amount of matter that is available in its nebula, the giant cloud of gas and dust from which it was born.

Answer:

draw fuel from the tank and supply pressurized fuel to the engine.

Copper-nickel (Cu-Ni) alloys are high-strength and corrosion-resistant alloys that are used in a wide range of applications, including electrical applications. The electrical conductivity of a Cu-Ni alloy is dependent on a variety of factors, including the alloy composition, temperature, and mechanical properties, such as the yield strength.A Cu-Ni alloy that has a yield strength of 140 MPa may have a different electrical conductivity compared to another Cu-Ni alloy that has a different yield strength.

However, in general, Cu-Ni alloys are known for their high electrical conductivity, with electrical conductivity values ranging from 7 to 45% International Annealed Copper Standard (IACS).Cu-Ni alloys have excellent electrical conductivity because copper is an excellent conductor of electricity, while nickel improves the alloy's resistance to corrosion and oxidation. Additionally, Cu-Ni alloys have good thermal conductivity, making them useful in applications where heat transfer is necessary. Overall, determining the electrical conductivity of a Cu-Ni alloy requires an understanding of the specific alloy's composition, temperature, and mechanical properties. However, in general, Cu-Ni alloys are known for their high electrical conductivity and are used in many electrical applications.

To know more about copper visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29137939

#SPJ11

The weight of picture frame that is hanging by two vertical strings the tensions in the strings are 5.7N and 3.5N is 9.2 N

Since the picture frame is hanging and not moving,

a = 0

The string apply a force upwards and weight is a force that acts downwards.

T1 = 5.7 N

T2 = 3.5 N

∑ Fy = m a

T1 + T2 - W = 0

5.7 + 3.5 - W = 0

W = 9.2 N

Therefore, the weight of picture frame is 9.2 N

To know more about weight

https://brainly.com/question/13040516

#SPJ1

Newton's 2nd law of motion says:

Net force = (mass) · (acceleration) .

Newton didn't make up this law for his health.

Let's use it to answer this question about the car moving down the road.

Net force on the car = (car's mass) · (car's acceleration).

But the net force on the car is zero.  So we can write:

0 = (car's mass) · (car's acceleration).

Look at the right side of this equation.

Newton's law tells us that the product of the car's mass and the car's acceleration is zero.

That tells us that at least one of three things must be true.

Either 1). the car's mass is zero, or 2). the car's acceleration is zero, or 3). Newton was crazy.

We're pretty sure that 1). and 3). are false. The car's acceleration is zero.

What does this mean ? It means that the car's speed and direction are not changing.

That's exactly what Choice-B says.

Answer:

Can't see the pic

Explanation:

Mechanical energy is of two types,

1. Kinetic energy

2. Potential energy

When the girl is at the top of her jump, the speed of the girl becomes zero.

Thus, the kinetic energy of the girl at the top of her jump is,

where m is the mass of the girl and v is her speed,

Substituting the known values,

Thus, the kinetic energy of the girl is zero at the top of her jump.

The potential energy of the girl at the top of her jump is,

where g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height of the girl,

Thus, the potential energy of the girl at the maximum height is maximum.

Hence, the mechanical energy of the girl at the top is in potential energy form because her kinetic energy is zero at the top of her jump.

The current in a device is the amount of charge moving per unit time. The current in the device is 4.8 A (amperes). The answer is 4.8 A.

Current is expressed in amperes (A) and is represented by the symbol I. The steady flow of current in a device resulted in 3 × 10^15 electrons entering the device in 0.1 ms.

The charge q carried by a single electron is 1.6 × 10^-19 C.

Therefore, the total charge carried by 3 × 10^15 electrons is:

q = (3 × 10^15 electrons) x (1.6 × 10^-19 C/electron)

q = 4.8 × 10^-4 C

We know that current (I) is given by:

I = q / t

where q is the charge and t is the time taken.

In this case, q = 4.8 × 10^-4 C and t = 0.1 ms

= 0.0001 s.

Hence, the current is: I = 4.8 × 10^-4 C / 0.0001 s

I = 4.8 A.

Therefore, the current in the device is 4.8 A (amperes). The answer is 4.8 A.

To learn more about current visit;

https://brainly.com/question/31315986

#SPJ11

Answer:

It can have many set of perpendicular component but the most important one is 3 AND 4

Explanation:

PLEASE MARK ME BRAINLIEST IF MY ANSWER IS CORRECT PLEASE

a) Since the electron has a negative charge, the force vector F⃗ is opposite in direction to v⃗ × B⃗:     F⃗ = -6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s.

b) The magnetic force vector F⃗ can be expressed as Fx, Fy, Fz, where the x, y, and z components are separated by commas: Fx = 0, Fy = -6.15 × 107 Tm/s, Fz = 0.

a) The magnetic force on a moving charged particle is given by the equation F⃗ = q(v⃗ × B⃗), where q is the charge of the particle, v⃗ is its velocity vector, and B⃗ is the magnetic field vector.

In this case, the charge of the electron is q = -e, where e is the elementary charge. The velocity vector is v⃗ = 1.50 × 107 m/s in the direction shown in the figure. The magnetic field vector is B⃗ = 0.410 i^ T.

Calculating the cross product, we have:

v⃗ × B⃗ = (1.50 × 107 m/s) × (0.410 i^ T) = 6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s,

where i^ and j^ are unit vectors along the x and y directions, respectively.

Since the electron has a negative charge, the force vector F⃗ is opposite in direction to v⃗ × B⃗:

F⃗ = -6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s.

Therefore, the vector F⃗ can be expressed as Fx = 0, Fy = -6.15 × 107 Tm/s, and Fz = 0.

b) The magnetic force vector F⃗ can be expressed as Fx, Fy, Fz, where the x, y, and z components are separated by commas:

Fx = 0,

Fy = -6.15 × 107 Tm/s,

Fz = 0.

To calculate the magnetic force on the electron, we use the equation F⃗ = q(v⃗ × B⃗), where q is the charge of the electron, v⃗ is its velocity vector, and B⃗ is the magnetic field vector.

Given:

Charge of the electron, q = -e (where e is the elementary charge).

Velocity vector, v⃗ = 1.50 × 107 m/s (in the direction shown in the figure).

Magnetic field vector, B⃗ = 0.410 i^ T.

First, we calculate the cross product v⃗ × B⃗:

v⃗ × B⃗ = (1.50 × 107 m/s) × (0.410 i^ T) = 6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s,

where i^ and j^ are unit vectors along the x and y directions, respectively.

Since the electron has a negative charge, the force vector F⃗ is opposite in direction to v⃗ × B⃗.

Thus, F⃗ = -6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s.

The magnetic force on the electron is given by the vector F⃗ = 0 i^ Tm/s, -6.15 × 107 j^ Tm/s, 0 k^ Tm/s, where i^, j^, and k^ are unit vectors along the x, y, and z directions, respectively. This means that the force acts only in the y-direction and has a magnitude of 6.15 × 107 Tm/s.

To know more about force ,visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12785175

#SPJ11

Answer:

Arsenic

Explanation:

Arsenic is in group 5 and period 4. Group numbers tell us the number of valence electron and period number tells us the number of shells in an element.