Answers
The following nursing actions would be a primary focus during the emergent phase of a burn injury is c. monitor fluids and electrolytes.
In the emergent phase, it is crucial to assess and stabilize the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation, as well as managing fluid resuscitation to replace lost fluids and electrolytes. Monitoring fluids and electrolytes helps to prevent complications such as hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to shock, organ dysfunction, and even death.
While pain management, preventing infection, scarring, and contractures are essential aspects of burn injury care, these concerns are more relevant in the subsequent acute and rehabilitation phases. In the emergent phase, the immediate priority is ensuring patient stability and preventing life-threatening complications by focusing on airway management, circulation, and fluid resuscitation, including monitoring fluids and electrolytes. The following nursing actions would be a primary focus during the emergent phase of a burn injury is c. monitor fluids and electrolytes.
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Related Questions
marco goes to see a psychiatrist to alleviate his extreme anxiety. which drug is the psychiatrist most likely to prescribe for marco’s anxiety?
Answers
The psychiatrist is most likely to prescribe an anti-anxiety medication for Marco's extreme anxiety.
Anti-anxiety medications, also known as anxiolytics, are commonly prescribed by psychiatrists to help alleviate symptoms of anxiety. These medications work by slowing down the activity of the central nervous system, which can help reduce feelings of anxiety and promote relaxation.
There are several different types of anti-anxiety medications that a psychiatrist may consider prescribing for Marco's extreme anxiety. Some of the most commonly prescribed medications include benzodiazepines, such as Xanax and Valium, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), such as Prozac and Zoloft. Benzodiazepines are a type of medication that work by enhancing the activity of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. This can help reduce feelings of anxiety and promote relaxation. However, benzodiazepines can also be habit-forming and may cause side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, and memory problems. SSRIs are another type of medication that are commonly prescribed for anxiety. These medications work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can help regulate mood and reduce feelings of anxiety. SSRIs are generally considered safer and less habit-forming than benzodiazepines, but they may take several weeks to begin working effectively.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Answers
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
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Mr. Jones is a healthy, active 82-year-old man. He exercises regularly and enjoys a variety of foods. Recently he has started gaining weight. He says he eats exactly the same amount of food he ate when he was 30 years younger. How would you explain to Mr. Jones his weight gain, and what suggestions would you make to prevent any additional unwanted weight gain
Answers
In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss.
Why do older people gain weight faster?Fat mass increases as muscle mass declines over time. According to studies, having a high proportion of fat mass increases the risk of impairment, mobility difficulties, and poor physical function in older persons.Even though they are less active, many seniors just eat the same amount of food that they did when they were younger. As a result, it's simple for older people to acquire weight without doing anything else.In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss. Our digestive processes become less efficient as we age, resulting in less energy from food being burned as calories and more being deposited as fat.How can the weight be controlled?Obesity and its associated chronic disorders have been demonstrated to be prevented by regular physical activity, even in the extremely old or weak elderly. Physical activity that preserves muscle and bone mass should be prioritized for older persons who are overweight.Getting adequate sleep, believe it or not, can help you burn more calories. You crave more food but feel less full due to hormonal changes that occur when you don't get enough sleep.Sleep deprivation is exacerbated by a lack of sleep, which leads to a need for high-energy foods, which are generally sweet or salty.Protein promotes muscle growth, but if certain forms of protein, such as meat, are difficult to consume, focus on softer sources of protein, such as yogurt.learn more about Weight gain in older people here:
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A friend tells you that he is going on a low-carb diet to lose weight because he thinks that carbs contain more energy than fats or protein. What would you tell your friend about his plan? A friend tells you that he is going on a low-carb diet to lose weight because he thinks that carbs contain more energy than fats or protein. What would you tell your friend about his plan? This is a bad idea because all food molecules store the same amount of energy. This is a good idea because sugars have more electrons than fats and protein. This is a good idea because sugars enter the fuel breakdown pathway earlier than other food molecules. This is a bad idea because fats contain more hydrogen atoms than carbohydrates and protein
Answers
I would tell my friend that his belief that carbs contain more energy than fats or protein is not accurate. All food molecules, including carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, contain the same amount of energy per gram. In terms of energy content, carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, just like proteins, while fats provide 9 calories per gram. Therefore, focusing solely on reducing carbs to lose weight may not be the most effective approach.
It is important to understand that weight loss is primarily influenced by creating a calorie deficit, where the total energy intake is lower than the energy expended. A balanced diet that includes a variety of macronutrients, including carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, is crucial for overall health and wellbeing.
Rather than solely focusing on one macronutrient, it is advisable to adopt a well-rounded, balanced approach to weight loss. This includes incorporating a variety of nutrient-dense foods, portion control, regular physical activity, and considering the overall energy balance. Consulting with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian can provide personalized guidance and support in achieving weight loss goals while maintaining a healthy and balanced diet.
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what is the rationate for rotating the patient foot internally when postioning for an ap hip?
Answers
The rationale for rotating the patient's foot internally when positioning for an AP hip is to obtain a true AP view of the hip joint. By rotating the foot internally, the femoral neck is placed in a more parallel position to the image receptor, allowing for a clearer view of the hip joint and the surrounding structures.
When positioning a patient for an AP hip X-ray, the foot should be internally rotated to ensure the greater trochanter is in an ideal position for the X-ray. This allows for the best visibility of the hip joint and surrounding structures. This positioning also helps to reduce any foreshortening of the femoral neck and provides a more accurate representation of the hip joint.
To properly rotate the foot, the patient's ankle should be placed at a 90-degree angle from the lower leg, with the toes pointing outwards.
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a nurse is using cohen’s 10 essential principles to develop and carry out a vision. which principles will the nurse use?
Answers
Cohen's 10 Essential Principles are a framework for developing and implementing a vision for nursing practice.
The principles are:
Shared vision: The principle of developing a shared vision among nurses, patients, and other stakeholders.
Evidence-based practice: The principle of using the best available evidence to guide nursing practice.
Quality of care: The principle of providing safe, high-quality care that meets the needs of patients.
Patient-centered care: The principle of focusing on the needs, preferences, and values of patients in the delivery of care.
Interprofessional collaboration: The principle of working collaboratively with other healthcare professionals to provide comprehensive care.
Education and lifelong learning: The principle of promoting education and lifelong learning for nurses to improve patient outcomes.
Cultural competence: The principle of understanding and respecting the cultural background and beliefs of patients.
Informatics: The principle of using technology to support nursing practice and improve patient outcomes.
Leadership: The principle of promoting leadership among nurses to improve patient outcomes and advance the profession.
Professionalism: The principle of promoting ethical and professional behavior among nurses to improve patient outcomes and advance the profession.
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I am doing a project on Leukemia and need help writing a conclusion!! Any suggestions would be helpful??
Answers
Explanation:
Certainly! Here are some suggestions for writing a conclusion for your leukemia project:
Summarize the key points: In your conclusion, you should summarize the most important points you made in your project. This can include information about what leukemia is, its causes, symptoms, treatments, and impact on patients and their families.
Highlight the significance: You may also want to emphasize why it is important to study leukemia. For example, you can discuss how research on leukemia has led to new treatments that have improved the survival rates and quality of life for patients.
Discuss ongoing research: You can also mention ongoing research efforts to better understand leukemia and develop new treatments. This can help readers understand that the fight against leukemia is ongoing and that progress is being made.
Offer recommendations: You may want to offer recommendations for how individuals can help support leukemia research and patients. This can include donating to organizations that support leukemia research, participating in fundraising events, or volunteering at a hospital or cancer center.
End with a call to action: Finally, you can end your conclusion with a call to action to inspire readers to take action. This can be a powerful way to leave a lasting impression on your audience and encourage them to become involved in the fight against leukemia.
Remember, your conclusion should be a strong and impactful summary of your project. It should leave a lasting impression on your reader and inspire them to take action. Good luck with your project!
a nurse is caring for a client with a total knee arthroplasty. the client reports a pain level of 6 out of 10. which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
Answers
The most appropriate intervention to address the client's reported pain level of 6 out of 10 would be to administer pain medication as prescribed. Here option A is the correct answer.
Pain management is a crucial aspect of postoperative care for clients who have undergone total knee arthroplasty. It is important to follow the prescribed pain medication regimen to provide relief and promote comfort. The nurse should assess the client's medication orders and administer the prescribed pain medication promptly. This may include analgesics such as opioids or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to help alleviate pain and improve the client's overall well-being.
While options B, C, and D may also be important interventions in the overall care of a client with a total knee arthroplasty, they may not directly address the immediate concern of pain management. Assessing the surgical site for signs of infection (option B) is crucial for identifying potential complications, but it may not directly relieve the client's pain.
Elevating the client's leg and applying ice packs (option C) can help reduce swelling and provide some comfort, but it may not sufficiently address the reported pain level of 6 out of 10. Encouraging the client to perform range-of-motion exercises (option D) is beneficial for rehabilitation, but it may not be the most immediate intervention for addressing pain.
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Complete question:
Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to address the reported pain level of 6 out of 10 in a client with a total knee arthroplasty?
A) Administer pain medication as prescribed
B) Assess the surgical site for signs of infection
C) Elevate the client's leg and apply ice packs
D) Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises
What body landmark does the ACL start from?
O Intercondylar notch
0 Tibial tuberosity
O Medial condyle
0 Fibular head
Answers
Answer:
The ACL originates from deep within the notch of the distal femur. Its proximal fibers fan out along the medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle. There are two bundles of the ACL: the anteromedial and the posterolateral, named according to where the bundles insert into the tibial plateau.
Carlos' nutritionist recommended he eat 2,500 calories per day. How many of these calories should come from fat
Answers
Answer: 500 to 875
Explanation:
A calorie is simply referred to as a unit of energy. Calories has to do with the energy that people get from food and the drinks that they eat. Nutritionist typically advices people to reduce their calories intake.
According to nutritionist, about 20% - 35% of the food that we eat should come from fat. In this scenario, we have to calculate 20% of 2500 calories and also calculate 35% of 2500 calories. This will be:
= 20% × 2500 calories
= 0.2 × 2500 calories
= 500 calories
Also, 35% of 2500 calories would be:
= 35% × 2500 calories
= 0.35 × 2500 calories
= 875 calories.
Therefore, the answer is 500 to 875.
Radiolucent or Radiopaque
If root formation is incomplete during erupting of the teeth, the sac will appear ______ around the tooth.
Answers
If root formation is incomplete during the erupting of the teeth, the sac will appear radiolucent around the tooth.
How does root formation coincide with the eruption of the tooth?Root development accompanies rapid tooth eruption, but roots are required for the movement of teeth into the oral cavity. It has been shown that dental follicle and bone remodeling are essential for tooth eruption. So far, only limited genes have been associated with root formation and tooth eruption. Clinically, the eruption cyst appears as a dome-shaped raised swelling in the mucosa of the alveolar ridge, which is soft to the touch and the color ranges from transparent, bluish, purple to blue-black.
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A busy student, with very few financial resources, has body aches, a fever, cough and nasal congestions and difficulty breathing through their nose. The direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to
Answers
According to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
What is a common cold?It is a mild condition of an infectious nature and viral origin that is also known as a catarrh and that affects the upper respiratory structure.
Its symptoms include sore throat, sneezing, nasal congestions, headache, cough, malaise, and low-grade fever.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
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EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:
Select one:
A. the Emergency Medical Services Act.
B. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.
C. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.
D. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
Answers
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society, which means option D is correct.
EMS stands for Emergency Medical Services. These services began during the era of Civil War, when numerous people died due to lack of medical support or first aid. Its use was first seen in the accidental death and disability publication. Under this facility, quick redressal system, ambulance care, easy and safe transportation facilities, and medical assistance on the spot were to be ensured in case of any mishappening. With the advancements made in technology, better services could be provided. However, uniform laws were still not made and training personnel were not serious about their jobs.
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Cinoxacin 1 g/day, PO, in two divided dosesDrug available: 500 mg capsulesHow many milligrams would you give per dose?A. 250B. 500C. 750D. 1000
Answers
Cinoxacin is given for the patient at a dose of 1 g per day, divided into two doses to be taken orally.
The medication comes in 500 mg capsules. Therefore, since each capsule contains 500 mg of the medication, the dose administered would be 500 mg. For a total daily dose of 1 g, the patient is directed to take two 500 mg doses of Cinoxacin each day. Following the advice of the healthcare professional is crucial, as is making sure the right dose is taken at the right times. Additionally, patients should communicate any worries or inquiries they may have regarding their medicine to their healthcare professional.
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There are many complaints that nutrition education is focused on what not to eat instead of what to eat. How does this confuse consumers?
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Romans developed surgical tools such as scalpels and retractors. Which of the following career fields evolved around the development of these devices?
A: Genetic medicine
B: Medical sales representative
C: Medical instrument engineering
D: Biochemistry
E: Pharmacy
Answers
The career that evolved for the development of these tools was medical instrument engineering (Option C). This field allows the development of different medical devices.
Medical instrument engineeringMedical instrument engineering refers to the techniques and strategies aimed at developing new tools in medicine.
Currently, this field (medical instrument engineering) is aimed at designing, developing and repairing electronic medical devices and medical tools.
The devices can be used for improving the overall health of patients in clinical settings, as well as for developing new medical strategies.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Answers
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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Michael has been in and out of the hospital battling respiratory diseases. He is on a constant course of antibiotics to combat these infections. He also experiences persistent rashes, night sweats, and fatigue. He has also been diagnosed with an STI. The most likely infection he has is
Answers
The most likely infection Michael has is HIV/AIDS since he has also been diagnosed with an STI.
What is HIV/AIDS?HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that produces acquired immunodeficiency syndrome or AIDS.
This disease is characterized by a weak immune system, persistent rashes, night sweats, and fatigue.
In conclusion, the most likely infection Michael has is HIV/AIDS since he has also been diagnosed with an STI.
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Tyler's clinician has made a diagnosis and must now create a picture of how the disorder may have evolved and what factors might influence his psychological status. Which of the following is the best description of this process?
a. Axis V
b. Case formulation
c. Differential diagnosis
Answers
Case formulation is the best description of the process made by Tyler's clinician.
What is case formulation?Once a psychiatrist makes a formal diagnosis, they analyze factors that may have influenced the patient's or client's current mental state. A clinical formulation, also known as a case formulation or case conception, is an analysis or theory-based description of information obtained from a clinical evaluation.
This provides hypotheses about the causes and nature of problems encountered (e.g., background history, concerns encountered, development and progression of behavioral signs and symptoms over time), and psychiatry's more categorical approach to diagnosis. It is seen as a complementary or alternative approach to conventional approaches. .
As professionals, we must also consider the possibility of misuse of documents by others. This affects how cases are created.
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The nurse is communicating with a client who has been newly diagnosed with cancer. Which statement(s) by the nurse is nontherapeutic? Select all that apply.
"You will be OK. Your health care provider is an excellent surgeon."
"Keep your chin up. People survive this type of cancer all the time."
"Why did you not seek help when you first noticed a problem?"
Answers
Both statement 1 and statement 2 by the nurse are nontherapeutic in this situation. Statement 1, "You will be OK. Your health care provider is an excellent surgeon," may come across as dismissive of the client's emotions and fears regarding their diagnosis.
It also implies that the outcome is certain, which may not be the case with cancer. Statement 2, "Keep your chin up. People survive this type of cancer all the time," may seem like an attempt to minimize the client's feelings and may not be helpful in addressing their concerns. Statement 3, "Why did you not seek help when you first noticed a problem?" may be seen as judgmental and may cause the client to feel defensive. It's important for the nurse to use therapeutic communication techniques such as active listening, empathy, and open-ended questions to support the client through this difficult time.
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what illness did wilma rudolph have when she was a child?
Answers
Hope this helps!
to prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat the following: (select all the apply)
Answers
To prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat soft cheese therefore the correct option is A.
These foods can potentially contain Listeria monocytogenes, a bacteria that can beget severe illness in pregnant women and their future child. Soft cheese be defiled with Listeria during the aging process, unpasteurized milk and authorities can harbor the bacteria, and deli flesh and hot tykes can come defiled during processing.
Eating raw sprouts can expose you to Listeria, as can eating seafood that has not been cooked to a safe internal temperature. cooled smoked seafood is also unsafe, as it's frequently labeled as ready to eat, but can still contain Listeria. Pregnant women should also take redundant preventives when handling and preparing these foods.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
To prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat the following: (select all the apply)
a. cheese
b. meat
c. egg
d. fish
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is 6inches small?????????
Answers
Answer:
no its average
Explanation:
Conjugated estrogens tablets (PREMARIN) are available in strengths of 0.3 mg, 0.45 mg, 0.625 mg, 0.9 mg and 1.25 mg. If patient "A" took one tablet daily of the lowest dose and patient ‘‘B’’ took one tablet daily of the highest dose, what is the difference in the total quantities taken between patients ‘‘A’’ and ‘‘B’’ over a period of 30 days (a) 2.85 mg (b) 2850mg (c) 2.85 cg (d) 2.85dg
Answers
Answer:
(c) 2.85 cg
Explanation:
Patient A:
- Lowest dose >> 0.3 mg x 30 days = 9 mg
Patient B:
- Highest dose >> 1.25 mg x 30days = 37.5 mg
Comparison of dose between patients = 37.5 mg - 9 mg = 28.5 mg >>> 1 centigram is equivalent to ten (10) milligrams (mg), thereby the correct answer is (c) 2.85 cg
Premarin is a medication that contains conjugated estrogens (hormones). It is commonly used in the USA to treat menopause symptoms like hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
As a young child: Haung was a premature baby who always seemed to be getting sick. Out of fear for their son's health, Haung's parents kept him at home and, for the most part, away from other children. Huang's first grade teacher described his as "a good student, but very shy." Complete the description as an older child and as a young adult.
Answers
Answer:
Huang's third grade teacher described him as "a gentle boy with less friends, not too smart and showing signs of depression"
Huang's college lecturer described him as "a very intelligent young adult, who is an introvert, depressed, and not healthy physically"
Research has shown that social isolation of children often results in mental disorders, including depressive disorders, and long-term illnesses. It doesn't have a negative effect on brilliance.
because vitamin a is a fat-soluble vitamin, what problem can readily occur?
Answers
Because vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin, excess intake can lead to a condition called hypervitaminosis A. This occurs when the body stores excessive amounts of vitamin A, which can cause a range of health problems.
As a fat-soluble vitamin, vitamin A is stored in the body's fat cells and liver. This storage capability allows the body to utilize vitamin A when needed, even if dietary intake is insufficient. However, it also means that excess intake of vitamin A can lead to accumulation in the body, resulting in hypervitaminosis A.
Hypervitaminosis A can cause various health problems. Symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness, blurred vision, skin changes, and bone pain. In severe cases, it can lead to more serious complications such as liver damage, hair loss, and even birth defects if consumed in excess during pregnancy.
It's important to note that hypervitaminosis A is generally associated with consuming high-dose vitamin A supplements or consuming large amounts of animal-based foods that are high in preformed vitamin A (retinol). These include liver, fish liver oil, and certain dairy products. However, consuming plant-based foods rich in beta-carotene (a precursor to vitamin A) such as carrots, sweet potatoes, and leafy greens is generally safe, as the body converts beta-carotene into vitamin A as needed and does not accumulate excess amounts.
To avoid problems related to excess vitamin A, it is crucial to maintain a balanced and varied diet. If considering vitamin A supplements, it is essential to follow the recommended daily dosage and consult a healthcare professional for guidance, especially if you have any underlying health conditions.
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In ECG, Improper electrode placement will lead to:
a)weak or no signals
b) waveform interference
Please answer the correct one :) it’s urgent! Will give brainly only if correct!
Answers
can someone heelp me plz
Answers
2 capsules
3 capsules
(Please let me know if I’m right)
Which of the following findings during an assessment of a child who is 30 months old requires further evaluation
Answers
The assessment of a 30-month-old child requiring further evaluation by the nurse can state first and last names.
Children aged 30 months or 2.5 years are getting smarter and the more skills they have, such as:
Starting to be independent and want to do things on their own. They can choose what clothes to wear and put them on themselves, brush their teeth, and eat them by themselves.Better speaking ability. Their speech and pronunciation are getting clearer and can use three or four phrases. They can also distinguish some simple words, such as up and down.Understand the idea of gender and know that men become men and women become women. Therefore, it is better to try to avoid stereotypes on gender bullets.Other abilities, some children call themselves by name, easily imitate other people's speech and play pretend or role play, and like to walk up and down stairs, kick and throw balls, and jump. In addition, it also begins to sort things by color, shape, and size and can tell when to change diapers or use the toilet.This question is option:
1. Unable to hop on one foot 2. Primary dentition is complete 3. Birth weight is tripled 4. Able to state first and last nameLearn more about the skills of the child at https://brainly.com/question/799028.
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