Which of these people is most likely to be influenced by peer pressure? A. a teenager who is very sociable but focuses on academics B. a teenager who buys clothing because of what friends are buying C. a teenager with a very supportive and involved family unit
Answers
Answer:
B. a teenager who buys clothing because of what friends are buying
Explanation:
Peer pressure is being influenced by the people in your social climate or group to act in a certain way. When someone starts to do or act in a certain way that is different from what they used to do simply because their peers are doing it, then we say they have succumbed to peer pressure.
A teenager who is buying clothes because of what her peers are buying is an example of peer pressure.
Answer:
B.) a teenager who buys clothing because of what friends are buying
Explanation:
This teen is most likely to be influenced by peer pressure because she sees her friends doing, and buying things so she wants to do the same.
Related Questions
what should i eat rightnow?
Answers
Answer:
maybe a sandwich?
Explanation:
Answer:
Cheese dip and chips with shrimp on top :0
Explanation:
According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:A. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.B. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.C. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.D. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor.
Answers
According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), the factors to consider for air medical transport of a trauma patient are:
A. Traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
C. The patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.
So, the correct options are A and C.
Options B and D are not included in the AAMS guidelines for air medical transport consideration.
Option B, which mentions the ambulance being out of service for an extended period of time, is not a primary consideration for air medical transport. The severity of the patient's injuries and the need for advanced life support care take precedence over the availability of the ambulance.
Option D, regarding a motor vehicle crash and the death of another occupant, does not automatically warrant air medical transport unless the patient's injuries are significant and require the specialized care available through air transport.
It is important to consult local protocols and medical professionals for specific guidance and considerations in each situation, as guidelines and practices may vary.
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Briefly describe any three (3) examples each of social,
psychological, cognitive and physical factors associated with
mental health conditions.
Answers
Social factors: Social support, bullying, cultural norms.
Psychological factors: Childhood experiences, personality traits, coping mechanisms.
Cognitive factors: Cognitive distortions, rumination, cognitive flexibility.
Physical factors: Neurochemical imbalances, chronic physical illnesses, substance abuse.
Social factors associated with mental health conditions:
Social support: Having a strong support network and positive social relationships can contribute to better mental health outcomes.
Bullying and peer pressure: Negative social interactions, such as bullying or peer pressure, can lead to increased stress, anxiety, and depression.
Cultural and societal norms: Cultural expectations and societal pressures can influence mental health, such as the stigma surrounding mental illness or rigid gender roles.
Psychological factors associated with mental health conditions:
Childhood experiences: Adverse childhood experiences, such as abuse, neglect, or trauma, can have long-lasting effects on mental health.
Personality traits: Certain personality traits, such as perfectionism, low self-esteem, or high levels of neuroticism, can contribute to the development of mental health disorders.
Coping mechanisms and resilience: Effective coping strategies and resilience can protect against mental health issues, while maladaptive coping mechanisms can worsen symptoms.
Cognitive factors associated with mental health conditions:
Cognitive distortions: Distorted thought patterns, like catastrophizing or overgeneralization, can contribute to anxiety disorders, depression, and other mental health conditions.
Rumination: Excessive rumination, where a person repeatedly focuses on negative thoughts or experiences, is associated with an increased risk of depression and anxiety.
Cognitive flexibility: The ability to adapt and shift thinking patterns is important for maintaining good mental health, as inflexibility can contribute to rigid thinking and difficulties in problem-solving.
Physical factors associated with mental health conditions:
Neurochemical imbalances: Alterations in neurotransmitters, such as serotonin, dopamine, or norepinephrine, are associated with various mental health disorders.
Chronic physical illnesses: Chronic conditions like diabetes, cardiovascular disease, or chronic pain can increase the risk of mental health issues.
Substance abuse: Substance abuse, including alcohol or drug addiction, can significantly impact mental health and contribute to the development of co-occurring disorders.
These factors are interrelated, and their impact on mental health can vary from person to person.
It is important to consider a holistic approach when understanding and addressing mental health conditions, taking into account the complex interactions between social, psychological, cognitive, and physical factors.
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Which method is ineffective for stopping severe bleeding?
removing a blood soaked gauze pad, then placing a clean one on the wound
applying pressure to a main artery leading to the wound
elevating the wound above the level of the heart
placing a clean cloth over the wound and press firmly with the hand
Answers
Answer:
applying pressure to a main artery leading to the wound
Explanation:
Applying pressure to a main artery leading to the wound is an ineffective method for stopping severe bleeding. Therefore, the correct option is B.
What is an artery?Arteries are the blood vessels which carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the other parts of the body.While applying pressure can help slow bleeding and allow time for medical attention, attempting to apply pressure to an artery can be difficult and may not effectively control bleeding.
Instead, applying direct pressure to the wound and elevating the affected area above the level of the heart can be more effective in reducing bleeding. Placing a clean cloth over the wound and pressing firmly with the hand can also be effective in stopping bleeding by promoting the formation of a blood clot.Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,
Which method is ineffective for stopping severe bleeding?
A. removing a blood soaked gauze pad, then placing a clean one on the wound
B. applying pressure to a main artery leading to the wound
C. elevating the wound above the level of the heart
D. placing a clean cloth over the wound and press firmly with the hand
What causes temporal pallor of the optic disc?
Answers
Answer:
Temporal pallor results due to involvement of the papillomacular bundle and commonly seen in toxic, nutritional optic neuropathy. NAION initially presents with disc swelling followed by sectoral disc pallor.
Temporal pallor of the optic disc is caused by a decrease in the number of nerve fibbers present at the back of the eye. It is commonly associated with glaucoma and other optic neuropathies.
Temporal pallor usually results due to involvement of the papillomacular bundle and they are commonly seen in toxic, nutritional optic neuropathy. NAION are initially presents with disc swelling followed by sectoral disc pallor.
Temporal pallor is the optic nerve is basically a diseases that damage optic nerve fibers may actually result in temporal pallor of the optic nerve. Note here that the normal nerve color present only on the nasal aspect of the disc.
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Evaluate the impact that ongoing changes in the relationships between G11’s
and their parents/ guardians, could have on their ability to achieve academic
goals
Answers
By fostering positive relationships with their G11s, parents/guardians can help to ensure that they have the support and guidance they need to achieve academic success and reach their full potential.
Ongoing changes in the relationships between G11s (eleventh graders) and their parents/guardians could have a significant impact on their ability to achieve academic goals. Positive relationships between parents and their children have been linked to higher academic achievement and greater engagement in school. Conversely, negative relationships, such as high levels of conflict or lack of support, can lead to lower academic achievement and disengagement from school.
As eleventh graders begin to prepare for college and future careers, the support and guidance of their parents/guardians can be critical in helping them navigate this important stage of their lives. If the relationship between G11s and their parents/guardians is strained, this could lead to a lack of support and guidance that may hinder their ability to achieve academic goals.
It is important for parents/guardians to maintain positive and supportive relationships with their G11s during this important stage of their lives. This can include providing emotional support, setting clear expectations, and encouraging their academic pursuits.
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juan's friends ask them to participate in some activities with them. juan feels pressure to join them, even though the activities might not be in his best interest. which of these reasons might not be strengthening juan's conformity to the group?
Answers
His friends sometimes make him feel incompetent. He admires the group's status. His culture strongly encourages respect for social standards.
What is the meaning social standards?It is a rule, principle, or norm that all members of a social group adhere to and that specifies acceptable, desired, or proper attitudes and behaviour in matters pertaining to the group.Social norms may be unwritten rules and laws or they may be formalised understandings that direct how people of a society behave. A "social contract" called norms underpins a group's cooperative efforts. Having specific group norms that everyone can see can give you a framework for dealing with behaviour that might be getting in the way of your goals.In the social sciences, norms are a key idea. They are most frequently described as socially enforced expectations or rules. Both prescriptive and proscriptive norms exist.To learn more about social norms refer :
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Edibles are:
a. Much safer than smoking marijuana because the effects (the "high) is milder
b. A form of marijuana that is eaten and long lasting
c. Usually laced with depressants
d. Stimulants
Answers
Answer:
B. A form of marijuana that is eaten and long-lasting
Explanation:
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_______________ are usually the focus of public health initiatives. Group of answer choices Affluent people The elderly Vulnerable populations Immigrants
Answers
Option c. Vulnerable populations are usually the focus of public health initiatives.
Public health initiatives aim to improve the health and well-being of communities as a whole. However, certain groups within the population face unique challenges and have specific needs that require targeted interventions. These groups are often referred to as vulnerable populations.
Vulnerable populations include individuals or communities who are at a higher risk of experiencing health disparities and adverse health outcomes due to various factors. These factors can include socioeconomic status, race/ethnicity, age, disability, gender, or immigration status. Vulnerable populations may also include those with limited access to healthcare services, low health literacy, or pre-existing health conditions.
Public health initiatives focus on vulnerable populations because they are more susceptible to experiencing health inequities and face barriers to accessing necessary healthcare and health-related resources. By addressing the specific needs and challenges faced by these populations, public health interventions can help reduce health disparities and improve overall population health.
By prioritizing vulnerable populations, public health initiatives can work towards addressing health inequities, promoting health equity, and ensuring that everyone has an equal opportunity to attain the highest level of health possible. It involves designing interventions that consider the specific needs, cultural contexts, and social determinants of health affecting these populations. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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The question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :
_____ are usually the focus of public health initiatives.
A. Affluent people
B. The elderly
C. Vulnerable populations
D. Immigrants
What factors does the health-belief model specify that health-related behavior depends on?
Answers
The Health-Belief Model is a tool that many scientists use to speculate health related behaviors. The key factors that health-belief model specify are perceived consequences, perceived risk factor, perceived advantages, perceived amount of effort, self-efficacy.
What are the factors that health belief model specify?The perceived consequence: What we think that the severity of the consequence will be. For instance, people will engage more in sexual activity if they think that STDs are not severe or life threatening. The perceived risk factor: People will not alter their behavior unless they believe that they are at a risk of getting a disease. For instance, people will not use sunscreen if they think that they cannot get skin cancer due to the harmful radiation from the sun. The perceived advantages: People will not alter their behavior if they think that it would not benefit them in any possible way. For instance, people will not stop smoking if they think that it would not change their life in any better way. The perceived amount of effort: people will not try to change their behavior if they think that it will be difficult to do so. For instance, people will worry about the effort, time, danger and other barriers involved. Self-efficacy: it refers to the ability and belief of a person to succeed in any given situation. People who are highly self-efficacious can quickly change their behavior when required and people who are less self efficacious have difficulty in changing their behavior when required.What are some of the criticisms of the Health-belief model?It does not keep in mind the environmental and social factors that affect health related behavior.
It ignores the individual factors like attitudes, motivation, peer pressure and need for social acceptance.
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The Health-Belief Model is a tool that many scientists use to speculate health related behaviors. The key factors that health-belief model specify are as follows:
The perceived consequence: what we think that the severity of the consequence will be. For instance, people will engage more in sexual activity if they think that STDs are not severe or life threatening. The perceived risk factor: people will not alter their behavior unless they believe that they are at a risk of getting a disease. For instance, people will not use sunscreen if they think that they cannot get skin cancer due to the harmful radiation from the sun. The perceived advantages: people will not alter their behavior if they think that it would not benefit them in any possible way. For instance, people will not stop smoking if they think that it would not change their life in any better way. The perceived amount of effort: people will not try to change their behavior if they think that it will be difficult to do so. For instance, people will worry about the effort, time, danger and other barriers involved. Self-efficacy: it refers to the ability and belief of a person to succeed in any given situation. People who are highly self-efficacious can quickly change their behavior when required and people who are less self efficacious have difficulty in changing their behavior when required. What are some of the criticisms of the Health-belief model? It does not keep in mind the environmental and social factors that affect health related behavior. It ignores the individual factors like attitudes, motivation, peer pressure and need for social acceptance.To learn more about peer pressure visit: https://brainly.com/question/1893367?
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Mindful or intuitive eating involves which of the following
Answers
Answer:
Aroma, textures, flavors, and sounds of your food. Consider which of the five basic tastes you are feeling when you eat your meal or snack.
Explanation:
What is the etiology of athletes foot
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Athletes Foot is caused by humid and moist enviroments. These enviroments can cause a certain fungi that lives on our skin, hair and nails. This fungus is called dermatophytes. Other ways Athletes Foot can occur is by touching a person or surface infected by the fungi.
The one rep max test is used to test a person's _____.
body composition
overall strength
muscular endurance
muscular strength
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Muscular Strength
What does it mean to be Physically Healthy and Fit?
Answers
Answer:
to be physically healthy you should be in shape, and stay active. you should be on a healthy diet and not eat junk food all the time. to stay fit you can exercise and go play with friends, or do physical activities. simple exercises can keep you fit, you don't need to do to much.
Explanation:
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deepta and abhinav having weight 450N and 350N are playing seesaw. If deepta sits at a distance of 2cm from fulcrum, how far should abhinav be seated in order to balance feel ya?
Answers
Answer:
The distance Abhinav should be seated from the fulcrum in order to balance the seesaw is 2.57 cm
Explanation:
For mechanical advantage of a seesaw, we have
Work done by Deepta = Work done by Abhinav
Weight of Deepta × Distance of Deepta from fulcrum = Weight of Abhinav × Distance of Abhinav from fulcrum
The given information are;
The weight of Deepta = 450 N
The weight of Abhinav = 350 N
The distance of Deepta from the fulcrum = 2 cm = 0.02 m
The distance of Abhinav from the fulcrum = X
Which gives;
450 × 0.02 = 350 × X
X = 450 × 0.02/350 = 0.0257 m = 2.57 cm
Therefore, Abhinav should be seated at 2.57 cm from the fulcrum in order to balance the seesaw.
What might happen to biodiversity in Area 1 if a new bird species moved into the area?
Answers
The biodiversity in Area 1 if a new bird species moved into the area will increase.
What is biodiversity?Biodiversity in ecology is the diversity (number and variety of species) of plant and animal life within a region.
The biodiversity of a region can be increased with genetic variation. This means that when a new set of genes is introduced into a ecological system, the biodiversity is increased.
Therefore, it can be said that the biodiversity in Area 1 if a new bird species moved into the area will increase.
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An example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal is ________.
a. cereal with milk
b. hamburger on a bun
c. red beans and rice
d. spaghetti with tomato sauce
Answers
The correct option is C) red beans and rice.
Spaghetti with tomato sauce is not an example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal. While spaghetti is a source of protein, it is an incomplete protein because it lacks some essential amino acids. Tomato sauce, on the other hand, has even less protein and is also an incomplete protein.
Red beans and rice is the correct for two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal . Rice is low in lysine but high in methionine, while beans are low in methionine but high in lysine. By eating them together, the amino acids complement each other, resulting in a complete protein.
Another example is hummus and whole wheat pita bread. Hummus is made from chickpeas, which are low in methionine but high in lysine, while whole wheat pita bread is high in methionine but low in lysine. When combined, they form a complete protein.
Other examples of incomplete protein foods that can be combined to form a complete protein include peanut butter and whole wheat bread, lentil soup with whole grain crackers, and tofu stir-fry with brown rice. By including a variety of plant-based protein sources in the diet and combining them strategically, individuals can meet their protein needs without consuming animal products.
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2) What is the head-to-toe pattern of infant physical development?
Coordination progresses from the trunk toward the ends of the arms.
Infant bodies develop from the head first, then down to the toes.
Infants develop intellectually first, then physically,
Infants engage in simple tasks, then gradually undertake more complex ones.
Answers
Answer:
Infant bodies develop from the head first, then down to the toes. Infants engage in simple tasks, then gradually undertake more complex ones.
Explanation:
How do pathogens enter the body
Answers
Answer: Through eyes, nose, mouth, or through broken skin
Explanation: took the quiz
The american academy of pediatrics recommends that most women breast-feed exclusively for the first ________ of infancy. 6 weeks 3 months 6 months 1 year
Answers
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that most women breast-feed exclusively for the first 6 months of infancy.
This means that during this period, infants should receive only breast milk and no other fluids or solids. Breast milk provides all the necessary nutrients and antibodies for a baby's healthy growth and development. It helps protect against various illnesses and provides optimal nutrition. After the first 6 months, the AAP suggests continuing to breast-feed while gradually introducing solid foods. Breast-feeding can continue for a year or longer, as long as both the mother and baby desire. However, the first 6 months are particularly important for exclusive breast-feeding to ensure the best start for the infant.
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The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends exclusive breastfeeding for approximately 6 months after birth. Furthermore, the AAP supports continued breastfeeding, along with appropriate complementary foods introduced at about 6 months, as long as mutually desired by mother and child for 2 years or beyond.
calculating weighted competitive strength scores for a company and comparing them against
Answers
Weighted competitive strength scores for a company can be calculated by assigning weights to various competitive factors based on their importance and assessing the company's performance in each factor.
The factors can include market share, product quality, customer satisfaction, innovation, financial strength, and more. The weights reflect the relative significance of each factor. Scores are assigned to the company's performance in each factor, and the scores are multiplied by the respective weights. The sum of these weighted scores provides the overall competitive strength score.
Comparing this score with competitors' scores allows for benchmarking and evaluating the company's competitive position, identifying strengths and weaknesses, and making informed strategic decisions to improve competitiveness in the market.
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Complete Question:
How can weighted competitive strength scores be calculated for a company, and how can they be used to compare the company against its competitors?
What is the best resource for quitting smoking? a nonprofit cancer society a nonprofit cancer society a commercial insurance company a commercial insurance company a major tobacco company a major tobacco company a pharmaceutical firm
Answers
The correct answer is a nonprofit cancer society for quitting smoking.
What are the disadvantages of smoking?Smoking damages nearly every organ in the body and brings on disease and disability. Additionally, smoking increases the chance of TB, a few eye conditions, and immune system disorders including rheumatoid arthritis.
400 infant deaths and 41,000 non-smoker mortality are attributed to secondhand smoking each year. Adults who smoke around others have coronary heart disease, lung cancer, and stroke. Acute respiratory infections, middle ear problems, more severe asthma, respiratory complaints, and slower lung growth in children are all risks that are increased by exposure to secondhand smoking.
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keeping it simple!! i have two questions
Answers
For the following:
29: Cardiovascular disease can be attributed to c. heredity30: The intensity of workout in b. 5What is cardiovascular disease?Cardiovascular disease is a broad term that includes a number of conditions that affect the heart and blood vessels. Some of these conditions, such as atherosclerosis, can be caused by controllable risk factors, such as high cholesterol and high blood pressure. However, other conditions, such as heredity, cannot be controlled.
The American Heart Association recommends that your heart rate return to 120 beats per minute (bpm) or below within 5 minutes of completing a workout. If your heart rate has not returned to 120 bpm within 5 minutes, it is likely that you have been working out too hard.
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Ana suffered multiple wounds and dislocation when she slipped on a wet floor. It was so painful and she felt so weak and almost fainted. Please help Ana. She is in shock
A. Cover her with blanket and elevate her legs above the heart.
B. Help her lie down and raise her legs 12 inches above the heart.
C. Give liquid to comfort her.
D. All of the above.
Answers
Consider the provided article in the supplementary material, and choose the false statement
None
Long waiting times in health centers can lead to increase the severity of disease and cause socio-economic costs
In outpatient hospital departments, the main indicator is patients' waiting time
There is a direct correlation between patients' satisfaction and the waiting times, which indicates that the long waiting times would positively impact the total patient's perception of service quality
Answers
The false statement is: "There is a direct correlation between patients' satisfaction and the waiting times, which indicates that the long waiting times would positively impact the total patient's perception of service quality."
The statement is incorrect because there is typically a negative correlation between patients' satisfaction and waiting times. Long waiting times often lead to decreased patient satisfaction and are generally perceived as a negative aspect of service quality. Patients may feel frustrated, inconvenienced, or believe that their healthcare needs are not being adequately addressed. Therefore, it is inaccurate to claim that long waiting times would positively impact the overall patient's perception of service quality.
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the abdominal muscle that extends vertically the entire length of the anteromedial abdominal wall and forms the traditional six pack is the:
Answers
Answer:
The answer is transverse abdominis
Explanation:
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Justine takes an iron pill, a calcium supplement, and a Vitamin D supplement every morning. These are each part
a good nutrition plan promoting different aspects of Justine's health.
Which aspects are promoted by these specific vitamins and minerals?
Answers
The aspects are promoted by these specific vitamins and minerals are Iron,Calcium and Vitamin D.
Iron:
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in the body's production of hemoglobin, a protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the red blood cells. Iron promotes the following aspects of health:
Oxygen transport: Iron helps deliver oxygen to various organs and tissues in the body, ensuring proper cell function and energy production.
Red blood cell production: Iron is necessary for the synthesis of red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to all parts of the body.
Prevention of iron deficiency anemia: Adequate iron intake helps prevent iron deficiency anemia, a condition characterized by low red blood cell count and insufficient oxygen supply to the body's tissues.
Calcium:
Calcium is a mineral that plays a vital role in maintaining strong bones and teeth. It also contributes to several other aspects of health, including:
Bone health: Calcium is a major component of bones, and it helps maintain their strength and structure.
Teeth health: Calcium supports the development and maintenance of healthy teeth.
Nerve function: Calcium is involved in the transmission of nerve signals throughout the body.
Muscle contraction: Calcium is necessary for proper muscle function, including muscle contractions.
Blood clotting: Calcium is involved in the process of blood clotting, which helps prevent excessive bleeding.
Vitamin D:
Vitamin D is a unique nutrient that plays a crucial role in various aspects of health. It promotes:
Bone health: Vitamin D facilitates the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the digestive tract, which is essential for maintaining strong bones and preventing conditions like osteoporosis.
Immune system function: Vitamin D supports the proper functioning of the immune system, helping to defend against infections and diseases.
Mood regulation: Vitamin D is involved in the production and regulation of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which can impact mood and overall mental well-being.
Overall health and disease prevention: Adequate vitamin D levels have been associated with a reduced risk of various chronic conditions, including heart disease, certain cancers, and autoimmune disorders.
It's important to note that the specific benefits and recommendations may vary depending on individual factors such as age, gender, overall health, and specific dietary needs.
Consulting with a healthcare professional or a registered dietitian can provide personalized guidance based on Justine's specific circumstances.
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Which organ is NOT removed during a TAH-BSO?
OA) ovaries
OB) uterine tubes
OC) uterus
D) vagina
Answers
The organ that is NOT removed during a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO) is the vagina (Option D).
What is the hysterectomy?The medical term hysterectomy makes reference to the surgical procedure aimed at removing the uterus, which completely suppress the reproductive abilities in a woman and therefore it is used for anticonceptive purposes. Moreover, bilateral oophorectomy refers to the removal of both ovaries.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that hysterectomy and oophorectomy are medical procedures aimed at removing the uterus and ovaries, thereby the woman loss the reproductive abilities due to the elimination of these reproductive organs.
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I'm doing a project in Pilot City for the Generations Connections: Digital Literacy program. It is a program where younger generations teach the older generations tech.
My solution is that health and wellness technological can help bridge the digital divide between the older and younger generations by providing user - friendly interfaces and features that cater to the needs and preferences of both groups.
I need help with identifying and describing the user and customer of the solution.
Answers
Great solution! Here's some information that might help you identify and describe the users and customers of your solution:
Users:
- Older adults who want to learn how to use technology for health and wellness purposes (e.g., tracking fitness goals, monitoring medication, accessing telehealth services)
- Younger adults who want to teach the older generation how to use technology for health and wellness purposes
Customers:
- Health and wellness technology companies that develop user-friendly interfaces and features for both older and younger generations
- Community organizations that partner with health and wellness technology companies to offer digital literacy programs for older adults
What played an important role in healthcare
Answers
Answer:
The main role of a support person is to help their loved one heal through support, encouragement and communication during their stay at Strong Memorial Hospital. Because of the importance of a support person's role, we believe they are critical members of a patient's health care team.
Explanation: