The same prescription as -3.00 +2.50 x25 is -3.00 +2.50 x105(b).
This is because the sphere (first number) and cylinder (second number) values are the same, and the axis (third number) has a difference of 80 degrees, which indicates a change in orientation of the cylindrical correction by 90 degrees.
Prescriptions C and D have a different sphere value, and prescription E has a different cylinder value, so they are not the same as the original prescription. Prescription B has the same sphere and cylinder values as the original, but a different axis value, so it would correct for a different type of astigmatism.So b is correct option.
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What is a contract allowable?
What impact does it have on the reimbursement to the provide
Answer: A contract allowable is the maximum amount that a healthcare provider can be reimbursed for a particular service or procedure, as agreed in their contract with a specific insurance plan or payer. The allowable amount directly affects the reimbursement that the provider receives, as they cannot be reimbursed more than the allowable amount for a given service or procedure.
Explanation:
aspiration is often used in the treatment of which disorder?
Answer:
Conservative therapy is the initial treatment of choice to prevent aspiration syndromes and often results in significant improvement in respiratory symptoms. Position infants in the prone or upright position. Avoid placing infants younger than 6 months in a seated position for approximately 90 minutes after a feed. Do not feed the infant within 90 minutes before bedtime. Elevation of the head of the bed approximately 30° may help, although young infants may slide down the bed during the night. Dietary modifications include thickening feeds for infants; breastfeeding; decreasing volume of feeds (10-20 mL/kg per feeding); and feeding small, frequent meals. Patients with swallowing dysfunction may benefit from certain food consistencies, positioning, and adaptive feeding equipment or utensils.
The management of an acute aspiration event consists of conservative management, observation, and possible antibiotic therapy. Initially, the patient's upper airway should be cleared and endotracheal intubation should be considered if the patient is unable to protect his airway
Beta blockers (beta receptor antagonists) decrease blood pressure by decreasing: 1) cardiac output 2) peripheral resistance 3) blood volume
Answer:
1
Explanation:
Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline. Beta blockers cause the heart to beat more slowly and with less force, which lowers blood pressure.
Beta-blockers also decrease blood pressure via several mechanisms, including decreased renin and reduced cardiac output.
Beta-blockers (beta receptor antagonists) decrease blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
Thus, the correct options are 2 and 3.
Betа-blockers work by blocking the effects of epinephrine, аlso known аs аdrenаline. By blocking the effects of epinephrine, betа-blockers cаn reduce the heаrt rаte аnd force of contrаction, which decreаses cаrdiаc output.
Аdditionаlly, betа blockers cаn cаuse the blood vessels to dilаte, which decreаses peripherаl resistаnce. By reducing both cаrdiаc output аnd peripherаl resistаnce, betа blockers cаn effectively lower blood pressure. It is importаnt to note thаt betа blockers do not directly decreаse blood volume, аlthough they cаn indirectly аffect blood volume by reducing the аmount of fluid the body retаins.
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medical professionals can determine how well a patient is monitoring his or her blood glucose levels by:
Healthcare professionals determine how well a patient is monitoring their blood glucose levels by analyzing blood glucose levels, the correct option is (a).
Medical professionals can analyze blood glucose levels by conducting a blood test, which measures the amount of glucose present in the patient's blood at the time of the test. This test is called a blood glucose test or a blood sugar test.
There are different types of blood glucose tests, including fasting blood sugar tests, random blood sugar tests, and oral glucose tolerance tests. These tests help determine the patient's blood glucose levels and whether they are within the normal range, the correct option is (a).
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The complete question is:
Medical professionals can determine how well a patient is monitoring his or her blood glucose levels by:
a. analyzing blood glucose levels
b. analyzing a urine sample
c. analyzing red blood cells
d. analyzing white blood cells
The technique where a person breathes in through the nose to a specifi c count and then exhales through pursed lips to double the intake count is known as a. sighing. b. deep breathing. c. meditation. d. autonomic ventilation. e. release management. 9. During autogenic training, a person a. contracts each muscle to about 70 percent of capacity. b. concentrates on feelings of warmth and heaviness
Answer:
a. sighing.
b. concentrates on feelings of warmth and heaviness
Explanation:
Which medications have the potential to increase a patient's susceptibility to infection?
Select one or more:
a.
Immunosuppresants
b.
Antihypertensives
c.
corticosteroids
d.
Insulin
should i show my face
Answer:
yes we want to see your face
hat are the priority nursing actions you would anticipate implementing when caring for Mr. Jones and why?
Repositioning Mr. Jones in a high Fowler's position, maintaining a close watch on his O2sat levels, and vital signs, assessing for chest pain, and recommending deep breathing exercises are the top nursing interventions for Mr. Jones.
What are priority nursing actions?The various nursing interventions that I would use as a priority to care for Mr. Jones are listed below.
However, the initial step is to. Give oxygen as directed to aid in gathering vital signs. Other crucial nursing actions include: Recognizing that Mr. Jones could be dying and checking to see how strong his airways are.
Obtain Mr. Jones' critical symptoms so that you can contact him and his family if necessary. To ensure Mr. is well nourished and hydrated, start an IV line for fluid replenishment.
Therefore, administer oxygen as ordered to help in obtaining vital signs.
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The structures in humans that provide the ability to detect pain and therefore keep the body safe are called?
Answer:
nociceptors.
Explanation:
Vhat body position will likely be most comfortable for a patient experiencing congestive heart failure
CHF)? Why?
Answer:
Sitting upright is the most comfortable position for a patient experiencing congestive heart faliure.
Explanation:
Congestive heart failure is when your heart doesn't pump enough blood to meet the body's needs and the blood backs up, causing fluid to build up in your lungs. So, when sitting upright, gravity pulls the fluid down, but if laying down the fluid can fill the lungs more easily.
Why are there ethical issues surrounding end-of-
life care?
because patients have the right to refuse end-
of-life care
because patients do not have the right to
make end-of-life decisions
because patients have the right to accept life
support
because sometimes patients cannot make
decisions for themselves
Answer:
because sometimes patients cannot make decisions for themselves.
Explanation:
Answer:
A,C,D
Explanation:
on edg2020
How does hyperemia following reperfusion of an arterial vessel differ from hyperemia following reperfusion of muscle tissue?
Hyperemia is the increased blood flow to an organ or tissue beyond its normal level. Reperfusion is the restoration of blood flow to an ischemic or hypoxic tissue after a period of inadequate perfusion.
Following reperfusion of an arterial vessel, hyperemia occurs due to the rapid restoration of blood flow to the affected tissue. This can lead to an initial increase in blood flow, followed by a decrease in blood flow as the vessels in the affected area constrict. This is known as reactive hyperemia.
In contrast, following reperfusion of muscle tissue, hyperemia occurs due to the accumulation of metabolic waste products and the release of vasoactive substances, which cause local vasodilation and increased blood flow. This is known as functional hyperemia.
The key difference between the two types of hyperemia is the underlying cause of the increased blood flow. In reactive hyperemia, it is due to the restoration of blood flow after a period of inadequate perfusion. In functional hyperemia, it is due to the metabolic demands of the tissue and the release of vasoactive substances.
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Morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake what is the main term?
Answer:
Class 3 obesity
Severe obesity and the technical code is E66. 01
The main term for morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake is "obesity."
Obesity is a medical condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of body fat, which can have significant negative effects on a person's health. When obesity is specifically attributed to excess calorie intake, it means that the individual is consuming more calories than their body requires for daily energy expenditure.
Excess calorie intake is a major contributor to weight gain and obesity. When a person consistently consumes more calories than their body needs for daily activities and functions, the excess calories are stored as fat. Over time, this can lead to significant weight gain and an increase in body fat percentage.
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What diagnostic test is considered most accurate in terms of diagnosing hiv
Answer:
These tests can detect antibodies starting a few weeks after you're infected with the virus. Antibody tests can be done using:
What is a nursing assistant? a clinical provider who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients a medical provider who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients a licensed nurse who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients
Explanation:
Unlicensed assistive personnel are paraprofessionals who assist individuals with physical disabilities, mental impairments, and other health care needs with their activities of daily living.A certified nursing assistant helps patients with direct health care needs.
Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: ___________(9 letters)
Answer:
Perfusion
Explanation:
Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: Perfusion
A client with rapid rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse why the physician is going to perform carotid massage. the nurse responds that this procedure may stimulate the:
Answer:
Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate.
Explanation:
It is time to treat your patient. Your goal is to return her arterial blood oxygen to normal. Use the time and side effect information to drag and drop the treatments to be used first, second and third. Treatment Options 1. Diuretic by Injection 2. Oxygen by Nose 3. Corticosteroids by Nebulizer
Answer:
1) Oxygen by Nose
2) Diuretic by Injection
3) Corticosteroids by Nebulizer
Explanation:
In order to return a patients arterial blood oxygen to normal you have to follow this Treatment Order ,
Treatment Order :
1) Oxygen by Nose
2) Diuretic by Injection
3) Corticosteroids by Nebulizer
Low arterial blood oxygen in a Human is called hypoxemia, and the first step to start its treatment is ; oxygen by Nose before taking other treatment order.
Answer:
The reason for choosing a treatment order is that it is possible that just one treatment is needed.
Oxygen works the fastest and has less side effects than the diuretic or steroids so it should be used first.
The diuretic works faster than the steroids and has fewer side effects.
That’s why the diuretic will be given second and the steroids last.
In really bad cases of chlorine poisoning, all 3 treatments are given at the same time.
Explanation:
-
Stellate reticulum appears at the beginning of cap stage
True or false?
which of the following has the ability to bind antibodies ?
1) coagulase
2) streptokinase
3) protein A
4) Hydrogen peroxide
The protein A has the ability to bind antibodies (Option 3).
Protein A is a surface protein which acts as a bacterial defense mechanism against the host immune system. This protein (protein A) was originally discovered within the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus.Protein A binds the fragment crystallizable region (Fc region) of immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies.Streptokinase is a enzyme produced by Streptococci spp. in order to break up blood clots and thus spreads from the original site of infection.Coagulase is another bacterial enzyme that clots blood plasma by converting fibrinogen in plasma to fibrin.Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidizing agent which is used as an antimicrobial agent.
In conclusion, protein A has the ability to bind antibodies (IgG antibodies).
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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect.
When reviewing the medical record of a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse should expect to find various characteristics like Butterfly rash, Photosensitivity, Fatigue, etc.
When reviewing the medical record of a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse should expect to find various characteristic findings associated with this autoimmune disease. Some of the common findings may include:
1. Butterfly rash: A facial rash that typically appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, resembling the shape of a butterfly.
2. Joint pain and swelling: SLE can cause inflammation and pain in multiple joints, often affecting the hands, wrists, and knees.
3. Photosensitivity: SLE patients are often sensitive to sunlight and may develop a rash or other skin reactions when exposed to UV light.
4. Fatigue: Fatigue is a common symptom in SLE, and patients may experience persistent exhaustion even after getting adequate rest.
5. Organ involvement: SLE can affect multiple organs, leading to various symptoms such as chest pain (if the heart is involved), breathing difficulties (if the lungs are affected), or kidney problems.
6. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test: Most individuals with SLE have a positive ANA test, indicating the presence of autoantibodies targeting the nucleus of cells.
It is important to note that the manifestations of SLE can vary among individuals, and not all patients will exhibit the same symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment and further diagnostic tests may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the specific findings for each individual client.
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john is a drug rep for the gladco pharmaceutical company, a leader in prescription allergy medications. john personally visits physicians to explain the benefits of new allergy products. by using a strategy of personal selling, john is using a _______ promotional strategy.
John is using a personal selling promotional strategy. Personal selling is a promotional strategy in which a salesperson communicates with potential customers face-to-face or through other forms of direct communication.
In this case, John visits physicians to explain the benefits of new allergy products, which involves building relationships with potential customers and educating them about the benefits of the Gladco pharmaceutical company's prescription allergy medications. Personal selling is often used in industries such as pharmaceuticals where products are complex and require a significant amount of explanation and education for potential customers. By using personal selling, John is able to provide personalized attention and tailored information to each physician, which can help to increase the likelihood that they will prescribe Gladco's allergy medications.
1. Direct marketing is a type of promotional strategy where businesses directly communicate with their target audience, often through personalized methods.
2. Personal selling, like what John is doing, is a form of direct marketing where salespeople interact with potential customers face-to-face.
3. In John's case, he visits physicians to promote Gladco's new allergy products and explain their benefits, thus employing a direct marketing promotional strategy.
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Compare and contrast the medical conditions of cerebral vascular accidents, transient ischemic attacks, and vascular dementia.
Answer:
If the symptoms are temporary without permanent brain damage, the event is called a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Rupture of an artery with bleeding into the brain (hemorrhage) is called a CVA, too. Strokes and TIAs are rated based on the underlying cause.
Explanation:
The
peripheral nervous system (PNS) connects to the brain and spinal
cord by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves .
What is the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerve
The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system is 12:43.
For 12 pairs of cranial nerves, there are 31 spinal nerve pairs, a total of 43 paired nerves together forming the peripheral nervous system.
PNS has both cranial and spinal nerves. 12 pairs of cranial nerves connect directly to the brain, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. Together 12 + 31 = 43, so there are 43 total nerves in PNS.
To calculate the ratio:
divide the no of cranial nerves by the total pair of nerves
12(cranial nerves)/43(total nerves)
12/43
The ratio is 12:43
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The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is 12:43.
The peripheral nervous system consists of two main components: the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 pairs of nerves that directly connect the brain to various parts of the head, neck, and upper body. These nerves emerge from the base of the brain and are responsible for functions such as vision, hearing, taste, smell, facial expressions, and motor control of the head and neck.
On the other hand, the spinal nerves are a set of 31 pairs of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and extend to different regions of the body. These nerves control sensation, movement, and organ function in the torso and lower body.
When considering the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the PNS, we add the 12 pairs of cranial nerves to the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, resulting in a total of 43 pairs of nerves. Therefore, the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves is 12:43.
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Critically analyse the impact of Covid-19 in developing
countries and How covid-19 affacted their economy.Give 5 points and
analyse each points.
The impact of Covid-19 in developing countries has been significant, affecting their economies in multiple ways.
What are the key ways in which Covid-19 has impacted the economies of developing countries?The Covid-19 pandemic has had profound economic consequences for developing countries. Here are five key points highlighting the impact:
1. Economic contraction: Many developing countries experienced a sharp economic downturn due to lockdowns, reduced economic activity, and disrupted global supply chains. This led to a decline in GDP growth rates and negative impacts on various sectors such as tourism, manufacturing, and trade.
2. Increased poverty and inequality: The pandemic exacerbated existing social and economic disparities, pushing more people into poverty and widening income inequalities. Vulnerable populations, including informal workers and those in the informal sector, faced job losses, reduced incomes, and limited access to social safety nets.
3. Disruptions in trade and remittances: Developing countries heavily reliant on exports and remittances faced challenges as global trade contracted and remittances from abroad declined. Restrictions on travel and disruptions in logistics disrupted supply chains, impacting export-oriented industries and reducing foreign exchange earnings.
4. Fiscal challenges: Governments in developing countries faced fiscal strain as they grappled with increased healthcare expenditures, implementing social protection measures, and addressing economic challenges. Reduced tax revenues and increased public spending led to budget deficits and a higher debt burden.
5. Reduced investment and financing gaps: The pandemic led to a decline in foreign direct investment (FDI) and limited access to financing for development projects. Investors became more risk-averse, diverting funds away from developing countries, leading to reduced investment in critical sectors like infrastructure and healthcare.
These points demonstrate the wide-ranging economic repercussions of the Covid-19 pandemic on developing countries, highlighting the need for targeted support and interventions to mitigate the impact and foster recovery.
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"Present Time" patient details are summarized by using what format?
Answer: c. OPQRST
Explanation:
OPQRST is an acronym that is very useful in the medical profession as it serves as a guide to diagnose patients and find out more about what the pain they are going through.
The acronym stands for;
Onset - with what intensity did the pain hit. In other Has it progressed steadily or remained constant. Provocation or Palliation - have there been any external factors that aggravate the conditions?Quality - what type of pain it is. For instance is the pain sharp, crushing, dull, etcetera. Such a question would fall under here.Region and Radiation - Where is the pain located and does it remain there or radiate to other parts of the body as well.Severity - Just how heavily is the pain being felt. How severe is it. Usually a scale of 1 to 10 is used with 10 being excruciating pain and 0 being no pain at all.Time (History) - How long has the pain being going on. How often is such pain experienced if ever. The goal being to find out if it a recurring pain as well its current duration.After the resuscitation event, the bls team conducted a debriefing session to ensure continuous cpr quality improvement. Which observation or data point suggests a need for improvement?.
After the resuscitation event, the bls team held a debriefing session to ensure continuous improvement in the quality of CPR. it is necessary to observe the survival rate of patients and maintain the patient's vital signs until the medical unit.
After the cardiopulmonary resuscitationCPR is a procedure that must be performed until the affected person's cardiopulmonary system stabilizes. Or even when the patient is declared dead. Or, in the case of a rescuer, who is alone in the operation, is unable to continue the rescue.
Understand that even if your heart rate returns to normal, emergency medical care should be provided for all people who have undergone CPR. This is because one of the purposes is a restoration of spontaneous circulation (SCR), that is, a brief resuscitation until the patient is adequately cared for in the hospital.
With this information, we can conclude that After the resuscitation event, the bls team held a debriefing session to ensure continuous improvement in the quality of CPR. it is necessary to observe the survival rate of patients and maintain the patient's vital signs until the medical unit.
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se encontró un charco de sangre en la escena del crimen. ¿Qué
tipo de evidencia se consideraria esto?
biological / biologico
physical fisico
trace / rastro
direct / directo
all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.
Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.
While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.
Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.
It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.
On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.
Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.
So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.
The complete question is -
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Emphysema
c. Active tuberculosis
d. Asthma
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any organism that invades your body and causes disease is known as?
Answer:
A pathogen is an organism that causes disease. Your body is naturally full of microbes. However, these microbes only cause a problem if your immune system is weakened or if they manage to enter a normally sterile part of your body. Pathogens are different and can cause disease upon entering the body.
Explanation: