while caring for clients who were injured in a tornado, the head nurse calls the medical command physician. what is the reason behind this action of the nurse?

Answers

Answer 1

Calling the medical command physician is a crucial step in providing quality care to clients who were injured in a tornado. thereby increasing the chances of a speedy recovery for the clients.

The reason behind the head nurse calling the medical command physician while caring for clients who were injured in a tornado is to seek medical advice and support from a physician who is specialized in disaster management. Tornadoes are catastrophic events that can result in numerous injuries and fatalities. When such an event occurs, healthcare providers need to act quickly and efficiently to provide medical care to those affected. In this case, the head nurse may have recognized that the injuries sustained by the clients were beyond their level of expertise and required the intervention of a physician who has experience in handling disaster-related injuries.
Furthermore, the medical command physician can provide guidance on triaging patients and prioritizing care based on the severity of their injuries. They can also advise on the appropriate medications and treatments to administer to the injured clients. Additionally, the physician can coordinate with other healthcare providers and resources to ensure that the clients receive the necessary medical attention.

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Related Questions

what is a chicken nugget?

Answers

It’s a chicken nugget

Compare the values for breathing while at rest sitting vs breathing after activity. How much is the difference

Answers

Breathing after activity is expected to be more rapid and deeper than breathing at rest while sitting.

Breathing after activity is generally more efficient than breathing at rest. Inhaled air provides more oxygen, which the body requires to convert food into energy. The amount of breathing performed varies from person to person and depends on a variety of factors, including age, weight, and activity level. In general, breathing becomes faster and deeper after activity, while it slows down and becomes shallower during rest.

The breathing rate increases with exercise because the body requires more oxygen. The breathing rate returns to normal levels during rest as the body's oxygen requirements decrease. The difference between breathing after activity and breathing while sitting at rest is that breathing after activity is typically faster and deeper than breathing while sitting at rest.

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Q- Compare the values for breathing while at rest sitting vs. breathing while at rest standing. Is there a difference? Why or why not?

which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.

Answers

Vasodilators treatment are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing.

What is Vasodilators?Vasodilators are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing. As a result, blood flows through the vessels more easily. The heart does not have to work as hard to pump blood, which lowers blood pressure.The most potent vasodilator known is a novel neuropeptide derived from the calcitonin gene.Vasodilators are medications that dilate (widen) blood vessels, making it easier for blood to flow through them. Some have an immediate effect on the smooth muscle cells that line the blood vessels.Vasodilators are used to treat a variety of medical conditions, the most common of which is systemic hypertension.

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the nurse is caring for a premature infant who needs an iv access restarted. which action should the nurse take when using adhesive tape?

Answers

Gently Talk to the infant so that the infant does not wake up during the process

Dental history dates back to ancient civilizations. Who are some of the early
contributors to the science of dentistry?

Answers

Answer:By the 1700s, dentistry had become a more defined profession.  In 1723, Pierre Fauchard, a French surgeon credited as the Father of Modern Dentistry, published his influential book, The Surgeon Dentist, a Treatise on Teeth, which for the first time defined a comprehensive system for caring for and treating teeth.  Additionally, Fauchard first introduced the idea of dental fillings and the use of dental prosthesis, and he identified that acids from sugar led to tooth decay.

Dentistry is one of the oldest medical professions, dating back to 7000 B.C. with the Indus Valley Civilization.  However, it wasn’t until 5000 B.C. that descriptions related to dentistry and tooth decay were available.  At the time, a Sumerian text described tooth worms as causing dental decay, an idea that wasn’t proven false until the 1700s!

In ancient Greece, Hippocrates and Aristotle wrote about dentistry, specifically about treating decaying teeth, but it wasn’t until 1530 that the first book entirely devoted to dentistry—The Little Medicinal Book for All Kinds of Diseases and Infirmities of the Teeth—was published.

Explanation:

a physician orders 30,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of d5w to infuse at 10 ml/hour what would be the hourly dosage of heparin

Answers

Answer:

flow rates (mL/hr), or hourly heparin dosages (units/hr) as indicated below. The patient has an infusion of 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL D5W infusing at. The physician leaves the order, “Adjust the IV flow rate to deliver 1200 units of.

Explanation:

Heparin is a drug that is utilized by doctors and physicians to eliminate blood clots in patients who have specific medical problems or are having medical therapies that increase the likelihood of clot formation.

From the information given:

The formula that can be used to determine the hourly dosage of heparin can be computed as:

\(\mathbf{D = \dfrac{A}{Q}\times H}\)

here;

A = the medicine flow rate = 10 ml/hourD = dosage of heparin received = ???H = available dosage at hand = 30,000 unitsQ = dosage unit/ medicine label = 500 ml

\(\mathbf{D = \dfrac{10 ml/hour}{500 ml}\times 30000 \ units}\)

D = 600 units/hour

Therefore, we can conclude that the dosage of heparin that would be infused hourly will be 600 units/hour.

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Removal of all or part of the seminal vesicle is called.

Answers

Vesiculectomy is the removal of all or part of the seminal vesicle


2. Identify the special requests that a provider may have for inpatient surgeries

Answers

Answer:

Tertiary Care

Explanation:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. What are teaching points the nurse can discuss with the client?

Answers

Answer:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.

Exercise that ranges from moderate to vigorous, such as aerobic activity and strength training, is safe for those who have pacemakers. The best value is obtained by those who start moving after being idle. According to experts, even a brief amount of physical activity contributes to better health.Weightlifting or any other repetitive, severe motion of the upper extremities poses a risk of cracking or damaging the pacemaker's lead, which might render the device ineffective at controlling your heart rate.

Precautions should I take with my pacemaker or ICD?It is generally safe to go through airport or other security detectors. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines or other large magnetic fields.Avoid diathermy.Turn off large motors, such as cars or boats, when working on them.

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A patient has been diagnosed with CAD of his bypass graft with angina.

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State the question I am not understanding what you are asking

List 11 body systems and give:

The main function of the system
• One disorder associated with the system listed
• One test ordered for the disorder listed
• The color top tube the sample is collected in for the disorder listed
• The laboratory department the sample is analyzed in

Answers

Answer:

Diagnostic tests and procedures are vital tools that help physicians confirm or rule out a neurological disorder or other medical condition. A century ago, the only way to make a definite diagnosis for many neurological disorders was to perform an autopsy after someone had died. Today, new instruments and techniques allow scientists to assess the living brain and monitor nervous system activity as it occurs. Doctors now have powerful and accurate tools to better diagnose disease and to test how well a particular therapy may be working.

Perhaps the most significant changes during the past 10 years have occurred in genetic testing and diagnostic imaging. Much has been learned from sequencing the human genome (the complete set of a person’s genes) and developing new technologies that detect genetic mutations. Improved imaging techniques provide high-resolution images that allow physicians to view the structure of the brain. Specialized imaging methods can visualize changes in brain activity or the amounts of particular brain chemicals. Scientists continue to improve these methods to provide more detailed diagnostic information.

Researchers and physicians use a variety of diagnostic imaging techniques and chemical and metabolic tests to detect, manage, and treat neurological disease. Many tests can be performed in a physician’s office or at an outpatient testing facility, with little if any risk to the person. Some procedures are performed in specialized settings to determine particular disorders or abnormalities. Depending on the type of test, results may be immediate or may take time to process.

Explanation:

According Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Americans consume an average of ________ more calories per day now than they did in 1971

Answers

500 calories per day.

Discuss the difference between short-term and long-term fitness goals. Provide an example of each

Answers

a short term goal is where you are searching to build stamina to be able to get to your long term goal.

short term: gain a little muscle and be able to work out for more than 10 minutes at a time.

long term: to be really fit and feel good about yourself

What additional health and fitness assessment is strongly recommended for a client with type 2 diabetes

Answers

For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test.

What is health and fitness assessment?

A health and fitness assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's physical and health status. The purpose of a health and fitness assessment is to gather information about an individual's health history, lifestyle, and physical fitness levels in order to develop a personalized plan for improving their health and wellness. The assessment typically includes a combination of physical measurements, medical tests, and self-reported information.

Examples of components that may be included in a health and fitness assessment are:

Body composition measurement: This includes determining the amount of body fat, muscle mass, and bone density.Cardiovascular fitness assessment: This can include measuring heart rate, blood pressure, and aerobic capacity.Strength and flexibility assessment: This measures an individual's ability to perform strength exercises and assesses the range of motion in joints.Medical history: This includes information about any past or present medical conditions, surgeries, or injuriesNutritional assessment: This includes information about an individual's eating habits, food choices, and any dietary restrictions or requirements.Lifestyle assessment: This includes information about an individual's physical activity levels, sleep patterns, stress levels, and substance use.

The results of a health and fitness assessment can help healthcare professionals and fitness professionals to design safe and effective fitness programs, identify health risk factors, and develop a personalized plan for improving overall health and wellness.

For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test. This test will help to assess the individual's glucose metabolism and identify any abnormalities or issues related to the control of blood sugar levels.

Other recommended assessments include:

Hemoglobin A1C test: This test measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and provides insight into the control of blood sugar levels over time.Lipid panel: A lipid panel is used to assess the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood, which are important risk factors for heart disease.Blood pressure: High blood pressure is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes, so it is important to regularly monitor blood pressure levels.Nephropathy screening: Nephropathy, or damage to the kidneys, is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes. Regular screening for nephropathy is important to detect and manage this condition.

It is also important for a client with Type 2 Diabetes to have a comprehensive assessment of their diet and physical activity levels, as well as a review of any medications they are taking. This will help to identify any changes that need to be made in order to effectively manage their diabetes and maintain good overall health.

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what are the common features of a synovial joint

Answers

Explanation: i have no clue, sorry

Articular capsule, synovial fluid, fibrous layer, and articular cartilage!

Levels of which of the following most strongly determines the future risk of heart attack?
a. Total cholesterol
b. HDL cholesterol
c. LDL cholesterol
d. C-reactive protein

Answers

Answer:

D. C-reactive protein

Explanation:

A c-reactive protein test measures the level of c-reactive protein (crp) in your blood.

Total cholesterol is most strongly determines the future risk of heart attack.

What is mean by Total cholesterol?Total cholesterol - a measure of the total amount of cholesterol in your blood. It includes both low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol. LDL (bad) cholesterol - the main source of cholesterol buildup and blockage in the arteries.

Total cholesterol is most strongly determines the future risk of heart attack.

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which of the following factors would be least likely to increase a person’s risk of heart disease?

Answers

Factors least likely to increase a person’s risk of heart disease -

Regular exercise, Balanced diet, Maintaining a healthy weight, Managing stress, No smoking.

In order to minimize the risk of heart disease, individuals should focus on maintaining a healthy lifestyle. Factors that would be least likely to increase a person's risk of heart disease include:

1. Regular exercise: Engaging in physical activities for at least 150 minutes per week can help maintain a healthy weight, reduce blood pressure, and improve cholesterol levels.
2. Balanced diet: Consuming a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats can help reduce the risk of heart disease.
3. Maintaining a healthy weight: Being overweight or obese can lead to high blood pressure and high cholesterol levels, which contribute to heart disease. By keeping a healthy weight, individuals can reduce their risk.
4. Managing stress: Stress management techniques, such as meditation and relaxation, can help prevent stress-related heart issues.
5. No smoking: Avoiding tobacco use and second-hand smoke exposure can significantly reduce the risk of heart disease.

These factors are associated with a lower risk of heart disease and can be part of a healthy lifestyle to maintain optimal heart health.

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True or false. A 12 yearold boy and a 25-year-old girl probably have the same recommended daily intakes of each food group

Answers

The answer is false.
False.

Kids and Adults each have very different food intakes. As the kid can eat less he could choose foods that fill him up faster than the regular adult

Which of the following is an involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes that is also associated with vestibular dysfunction

Answers

Nystagmus is an involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes that is also associated with vestibular dysfunction

What is Nystagmus?

A multitude of circumstances can cause nystagmus, an uncontrollable rhythmic side-to-side, up-and-down, or circular movement of the eyes. The condition of nystagmus itself is not harmful. It could, however, be linked to serious medical disorders, particularly those that impact the brain, like a stroke, brain tumor, poisoning, head trauma, and inflammatory diseases.

Various drugs, strokes, brain tumors, illnesses of the vestibular system, and other medical conditions are among the neurologic and medical causes of acquired nystagmus. The body struggles to maintain balance and may cause nystagmus when vestibular organs are not operating appropriately. For the majority of cases with congenital nystagmus, there is no cure. Depending on the reason, treatment for acquired nystagmus may vary. Nystagmus is sometimes irreversible.

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The complete question is -

Which of the following is an involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes that is also associated with vestibular dysfunction?

a) Tinnitus (b) Vertigo (c) Presbycusis (d) Nystagmus

What is the stigma towards people infected with hiv/aids in russia?.

Answers

AIDS epidemic Russia

The number of people living with HIV in Russia now exceeds 1 million, according to official statistics. Most experts say the true figure is likely to be at least 1.5 million — around 1 percent of the total population of 146 million — because many people are unaware of their HIV-positive status.

dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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if an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, what should be checked with the inmate's physician? (9.1.5)

Answers

Check the accuracy of the inmate's claim by contacting the inmate's physician to verify the medication information.

When an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, it is crucial to verify the accuracy of their statement to ensure proper medical care and treatment. The nurse or healthcare provider should reach out to the inmate's physician to confirm the medication information.

Verifying the medication details with the inmate's physician is essential for several reasons. Firstly, it ensures that the medical claim is accurate, as inmates may sometimes provide incorrect or outdated information. It also allows the healthcare provider to confirm the prescribed dosage, frequency, and any specific instructions or precautions associated with the medication.

Additionally, contacting the inmate's physician helps establish a collaborative relationship between the healthcare provider and the prescribing doctor.

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15. regarding tubuloglomerular feedback, which is true a. tends to maintain renal blood flow b. the sensor is JG cell c. operates via contraction of the mesangial cells d. acts to reduce GFR if the flow rate in the ascending loop of Henle falls e. GFR is modulated via contraction or dilation of the afferent arteriole

Answers

Answer: i'm 90% sure its d

Explanation:

13.The physician has ordered tetracycline 8 mg/kg IM every 8 hours for a patient. If the patient
weights 30 kg (66 lbs), how much tetracycline should the patient receive daily?

Answers

Answer:

720mg/daily

Explanation:

240 mg for his wt every 8 h

so 240 *3 = 720

Explain how the development of the pap smear improved the survival rate of women diagnosed with cervical cancer.

Answers

Doctors might perform a hysterectomy and discover precancerous cells using the Pap smear.

A Pap test, often called a Pap smear, is a procedure used to screen female patients for cervical cancer. For a Pap smear, cells are taken from your cervix, which is the lower, narrow end of the uterus that is located at the top of the vagina. A Pap smear can help detect cervical cancer early, which increases your chances of recovery. A pap smear is used to identify changes in cervical cells as they become malignant. The sooner you find cancer, the better your chances of beating it are. If you don't, cancer can be prevented through early cell change identification. Every woman between the ages of 21 and 65 needs to get a Pap test.

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the nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. which signs and symptoms should the nurse describe when teaching the client about hypoglycemia?

Answers

When teaching a client with type 1 diabetes about hypoglycemia, the nurse should describe the signs and symptoms of low blood sugar levels. These may include Shakiness or trembling, Sweating, Rapid heartbeat or palpitations, Hunger or nausea, Blurred vision or dizziness, Confusion or irritability, and Fatigue or weakness.

What is type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a chronic autoimmune disease in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Insulin is a hormone responsible for regulating the amount of sugar (glucose) in the bloodstream, so when insulin is not produced or is produced in insufficient quantities, blood sugar levels can become dangerously high.

What causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Type 1 diabetes typically develops in childhood or adolescence, although it can occur at any age. It is believed to be caused by genetic and environmental factors, including viral infections and exposure to toxins.

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Which of the following nutrition surveys has a specific methodology to collect more data from low income groups?
a. CSFII
b. NHANES
c. NND
d. DHKS

Answers

Among the given options, the nutrition survey that has a specific methodology to collect more data from low-income groups is b. NHANES (National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey).

NHANES is a nationally representative survey conducted by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in the United States. It aims to assess the health and nutritional status of the population. NHANES utilizes a complex sampling design that ensures representation from various demographic groups, including low-income individuals.

To collect data from low-income groups, NHANES employs strategies such as oversampling, which involves deliberately selecting a larger proportion of individuals from specific population segments, including those with lower incomes. This approach allows for a more accurate representation of the health and nutritional status of these groups.

By oversampling low-income individuals, NHANES aims to address health disparities and ensure that data collected are representative of the entire population, including those who may be at higher risk for health issues due to socioeconomic factors.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. NHANES.

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Read each of the structures or characteristics below. Then, click and drag each into the appropriate category to determine whether it describes a primary sex organ, secondary sex organ, or secondary sex characteristic.

Answers

there’s nothing to determine the organs to

all me pointa COME QUICK FIRST GET CROWN THINGY

Answers

djbrjwhdbbx d dhjdjdncnkc. plzzzz and thank u

Answer:

Well Thank you, thats very kind of you!!

Explanation:

God Bless!!

~DuffyDuck~

(check out my discord maybe? TheDiamondDuck #9036)

When the dental assistant is placing the liners, base , or varnish, the cavity preparation should be examined and the pulpal involvement assessed. Explain the depths of the cavity preparation it relates to pulpal involvement

Answers

When the pulp chamber's entrance can be seen due to advanced caries or when the crown has been completely destroyed and only the roots are left, pulpal involvement is noted.

The center of a tooth is called the dental pulp, and it is made up of connective tissue, blood vessels, and cells. If this becomes infected, it could hurt and require root canal treatment to save the tooth. Pulp testing techniques based on optical technology include laser Doppler flowmetry (LDF), transmitted laser light (TLL), laser speckle imaging (LSI), pulse oximetry (PO), transmitted light plethysmography (TLP), and dual wavelength spectrophotometry (DWS). Numerous factors, like as severe caries, trauma, or unintentionally filling a cavity in the dentist chair, might expose the tooth pulp. There may be serious repercussions, such as discomfort, infection, and necrosis.

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