Answers
Answer:
1. Shrink
2. Swell
3. Neither
Explanation:
The percentage of water indicates how pure the water is, i.e. how concentrated the molecules of water are.
The higher the percentage of water, the more water molecules there are in the space.
Water molecules move from a high concentration to a low concentration across a semi permeable membrane, by the process of osmosis.
In beaker 1, the water outside is 89%, and inside the bag is 92%. That means the water inside the bag is at a higher concentration than outside. That means water will leave the bag, moving from a high concentration to a lower concentration outside. The bag will shrink.
In beaker 2, the water outside is 97%, and inside is 92£%. That means the water inside the bag is a lower concentration than outside. That means water will enter the bag, moving from a higher concentration outside to a lower concentration outside. The bag will swell.
In beaker 3, the concentration of water inside and outside is the same. That means they are in an equilibrium (the movement is balanced) so neither will occur
Related Questions
what is the fate of glucose 6-phosphate that enters the pentose phosphate pathway in the flight muscles of hummingbirds?
Answers
The right response is that ribose-5-phosphate and carbon dioxide are created from glucose-6-phosphate.
The glucose-6-phosphate is converted into ribose-5-phosphate, which is the five-carbon sugar molecule and carbon dioxide, after entering the pentose phosphate pathway. Following the entry into the route, glucose-6-phosphate is initially converted into 6-phosphogluconolactone by the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
The generation of NADPH also occurs during the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to the lactone molecule. By the action of the enzyme lactonase, 6-phosphogluconate is created from the 6-phosphogluconolactone that is generated. This is further decarboxylated and hydrolyzed into carbon dioxide and ribose-5-phosphate by the action of the enzyme 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase. The hummingbird's flight muscles convert glucose-6-phosphate in order to produce NADPH and protect against oxidative stress.
The complete question is:-
What is the fate of glucose 6-phosphate that enters the pentose phosphate pathway in the flight muscles of hummingbirds? Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to carbon dioxide and ribose 5-phosphate. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to ribose 5-phosphate. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to carbon dioxide and pyruvate. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to carbon dioxide.
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which of the following is the body's most efficient form of stored energy? multiple choice question. phospholipids sterols triglycerides glycogen
Answers
The body's most efficient form of stored energy is Triglycerides. Therefore, for the question above, the correct answer is the third option.
Triglycerides are a form of fat or lipid that can be found in the blood. It is usually shorted into TG or TAG and can be called triacylglycerol or triacylglyceride. They are a major component of human skin oils and their presence in the blood enables the bidirectional transference of adipose fat and blood glucose from the liver.
When we eat something, our body converts the calories it doesn't outright need to use into triacylglyceride. They are stored in the fat cells and released between meals for energy by hormones when needed.
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What is the normal/average pH level of lake in a healthy ecosystem?
Answers
Usually fresh water lakes have a pH range between 6.5 to 8.5, this is appropiate for many organisms life and development.
Explain the elements needed in the nursing assessment of mrs. rogers’ musculoskeletal system.
Answers
Since the patient has an osteoporosis history, a musculoskeletal assessment is necessary.
In musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse should Inspect the axial and appendicular skeletons for alignment, contour, symmetry, size, and gross deformities.
Bones and muscles must be palpated to check for tenderness, heat, and oedema. The nurse should percuss the spine for tenderness.
Assessment of joints for motion should be done for this the nurse should know the expected movement of every joint. The muscles must be tested for strength bilaterally.
The patient's past surgeries, injuries and illness must be recorded with the family history of disease associated with musculoskeletal (for example, arthritis, osteoporosis, etc)
Disclaimer: The question is not complete.
Jolly Rogers, a 72-year-old female client who lives alone in a townhouse, arrives to the medical-surgical unit after falling down seven icy steps in front of her home.
The vital signs are T. 97° F; BP, 130/80 mm Hg; HR, 88 beats/minute; RR, 22 breaths/minute. She is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 120 lb. She has a history of osteoporosis and diabetes controlled with diet.
The client stated that she has pain in her right arm rated as 6/10, and pain in her right hip rated as 8/10. There is visible bruising and swelling at the right elbow.
The right leg appears shorter than the left leg, with external rotation of the leg and inability to move it and bruising and oedema at the site. The LPN/LVN needs to perform a complete musculoskeletal system assessment.
Explain the elements needed in the nursing assessment of Mrs. Rogers' musculoskeletal system.
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Which of the following does NOT contribute to water conservation?
Answers
I need help with putting the appropriate symbols for these chromosome rearrangements. The questions are:
A. A deletion in region 2, band 5 in the long arm of chromosome 4
B. Paracentric inversion(with two breaks in the same arm) in the long arm of chromosome 6, region 1, with break points in bands 2 and 6
C. Translocation of the long arm of chromosome 14 with the retention of the chromosome 14 centromere. Assume a break in the short arm of chromosome 14 at region 1 band 1 and the loss of the entire short arm of 21
The chromosome resulting from this translocation is properly referred to as a _____ chromosome?
D. A pericentric inversion in chromosome 2 with break points in region 1, band 4 of the short arm and region 2, band 3 of the long arm
I tried A and my answer for that is del(4)(q25). I don't know where to start for B,C, and D.
Answers
A. A deletion in region 2, band 5 in the long arm of chromosome 4For this given scenario, the proper notation will be del(4)(q25). The del in the notation stands for the deletion of the chromosome.
B. Paracentric inversion(with two breaks in the same arm) in the long arm of chromosome 6, region 1, with break points in bands 2 and 6The proper notation for the given scenario will be Inv(6)(q12q26). Inversion is represented by Inv in the notation.
C. Translocation of the long arm of chromosome 14 with the retention of the chromosome 14 centromere. Assume a break in the short arm of chromosome 14 at region 1 band 1 and the loss of the entire short arm of 21
The proper notation for the given scenario will be t(14;21)(q11;q22).
Translocation is represented by t in the notation. The chromosome resulting from this translocation is properly referred to as a translocated chromosome.
D. A pericentric inversion in chromosome 2 with break points in region 1, band 4 of the short arm and region 2, band 3 of the long armThe proper notation for the given scenario will be Inv(2)(p14q23).
Inversion is represented by Inv in the notation.
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What echinderm has a stomach outside its mouth.
Answers
Answer:
Sea stars can push their stomachs outside of their body and insert it into its prey allowing them to digest the food externally. This ability allows sea stars to hunt prey that are much larger than its mouth would otherwise allow.
Explanation:
Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct regarding the Mendelian dihybrid cross?
A. The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
B. Law of independent assortment can be explained on the basis of the dihybrid cross
C. F2 generation is obtained through the cross between F1 plants with one of the two parental plants
D. The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4 types in 1:1:1:1 ratio.
A
A, C, D
B
A, B, C, D
C
B, C, D
D
A, B, D
Answers
The correct statement(s) regarding the Mendelian dihybrid cross are:
B. Law of independent assortment can be explained on the basis of the dihybrid cross.
D. The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4 types in 1:1:1:1 ratio.
The Mendelian dihybrid cross involves the simultaneous inheritance of two different traits that are controlled by separate genes. According to the law of independent assortment, during gamete formation, alleles for different traits segregate independently, resulting in the formation of gametes with different combinations of alleles. This can be observed in the F1 generation of a dihybrid cross, where the gametes produced by F1 plants contain all possible combinations of alleles in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. This supports statement D.
However, the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation in a dihybrid cross is not always 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (statement A). It depends on the specific genes and alleles involved in the cross. Similarly, the F2 generation is not always obtained through the cross between F1 plants with one of the two parental plants (statement C). Therefore, statements A, C, and B are not entirely correct.
The correct answer is option D, which includes the statements A, B, and D as correct.
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The energy of the products is higher than the energy of the reactants in the exothermic reaction
A. True
B. False
Answers
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
In an exothermic reaction, the average enthalpy change is a negative value ( loss in energy ).
since enthalpy change of reaction is given by:
\({ \boxed{ \triangle H = \triangle(products) - \triangle(reactants)}} \\ \)
❎ when enthalpy energy of products is higher than that of reactants, ∆H will be positive ( endothermic reaction ).
✔ When enthalpy energy of products is lower than that of reactants, ∆H will be negative ( exothermic reaction ).
Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in an emergent coast? O uplift associated with active margin tectonics O the formation of a near-shore coral reef O subsidence of the shoreline caused by near-shore removal of groundwater O global sea level rise
Answers
An emergent coast is a coastline that results from the rise of the landmass, rather than a decrease in the sea level. The most probable scenario that will lead to an emergent coast is an uplift associated with active margin tectonics.
An emergent coast is a coastline that results from the rise of the landmass, rather than a decrease in the sea level. The processes that can result in the emergence of a coast include the uplift of the continental plate, the formation of the shoreline features due to the withdrawal of the sea, and the formation of the shoreline features due to the accumulation of sediments.
The most common processes that can result in the emergence of the coast are the uplift of the continental plate. Uplift associated with active margin tectonics is the most likely scenario that will lead to an emergent cost. An active margin is a boundary between an oceanic plate and a continental plate that is currently undergoing tectonic activity, such as the formation of mountains or the subduction of one plate beneath the other.
When there is tectonic uplift, the continental plate rises, resulting in the emergence of the coast. The formation of a near-shore coral reef is less likely to result in an emergent coast, as coral reefs are typically formed in shallow water near the coast, and they grow upwards towards the surface of the water. Coral reefs can provide protection to the shoreline from wave erosion but they don't emerge from the coast.
Subsidence of the shoreline caused by near-shore removal of groundwater is also less likely to result in an emergent coast. This process leads to the subsidence of the landmass due to the removal of the supporting groundwater and the resulting formation of sinkholes, but it is unlikely to lead to the emergence of the coast.
Global sea level rise will not result in an emergent coast. Instead, it can cause the submergence of low-lying coastal areas. Hence, the most likely scenario that will lead to an emergent coast is an uplift associated with active margin tectonics.
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Which of the following is a correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
Answers
The correct sequence of events in cellular respiration is option a: glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain.
During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP. The process starts with glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm and involves the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate molecules. Glycolysis generates a small amount of ATP and NADH.
The pyruvate molecules produced in glycolysis enter the mitochondria, where the citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle, takes place. In this cycle, the pyruvate is further broken down, releasing carbon dioxide and generating NADH and FADH2 as electron carriers. The citric acid cycle also produces a small amount of ATP.
The electron carriers NADH and FADH2 then participate in the electron transport chain, which is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In the electron transport chain, the electrons from NADH and FADH2 are transferred through a series of protein complexes, creating a flow of electrons that drives the synthesis of ATP. This process is known as oxidative phosphorylation.
Therefore, the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration is glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and electron transport chain, as stated in option a.
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Question
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
a. glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
b. glycolysis, preparatory reaction, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
c. glycolysis, electron transport chain, preparatory reaction
d. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport chain, preparatory reaction
e. citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis, preparatory reaction
Differentiate between stomata and lenticels
Answers
Answer:
Stomata are tiny pores found in the epidermis of the plant leaves and stems which involve in gas exchange of plants.
Lenticels are lens-shaped spots or present in the woody trunks or stems of the plants. They act as pores which involve mainly in direct gas exchange of plants betweem internal cells of the stem and the environment.
Activation energy is: The difference in energy between the products and transition state The difference in energy between the products and first intermediate The difference in energy between the starting materials and products The difference in energy between the starting materials and first intermediate The difference in energy between the starting materials and transition state Question 4 (1 point) Gibbs free energy is: The difference in energy between the products and first intermediate The difference in energy between the starting materials and first intermediate The difference in energy between the products and transition state The difference in energy between the starting materials and transition state The difference in energy between the starting materials and products
Answers
Activation energy and Gibbs free energy are both measures of the energy involved in chemical reactions. Activation energy is the energy required to start a reaction, while Gibbs free energy is the energy difference between the reactants and products.
Activation energy is the difference in energy between the starting materials and transition state. Activation energy refers to the energy that is required to initiate a chemical reaction.
This energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants, which then allows the formation of new bonds to create the products. The activation energy is the minimum amount of energy that is required for a reaction to occur.
The activation energy can be provided through heat, light, or other forms of energy.
On the other hand, Gibbs free energy is the difference in energy between the starting materials and products. Gibbs free energy is a measure of the amount of energy that is available to do work. The Gibbs free energy change for a reaction tells us whether a reaction will be spontaneous or not.
A negative Gibbs free energy change indicates that a reaction is spontaneous, while a positive Gibbs free energy change indicates that a reaction is non-spontaneous.
In conclusion, activation energy and Gibbs free energy are both measures of the energy involved in chemical reactions. Activation energy is the energy required to start a reaction, while Gibbs free energy is the energy difference between the reactants and products.
These two concepts are important for understanding how and why chemical reactions occur.
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4. Both the alcoholic fermentation equation and lactic acid fermentation equation represent
their anaerobic processes after glycolysis. In comparing all 3 equations, what should be added
to both anaerobic equations pre-glycolysis stage, to better represent their full respiration
processes? In the space below, write the two equations with their needed additions (1 pt.)
How should the two equations be rewritten?
Answers
It can be described ethanol and carbon dioxide are produces by glucose.
What is anaerobic respiration?The term Aerobic means having oxygen whereas the term anaerobic means something that lacks oxygen. Both the conditions are essential for overall health of living bodies due to the reason that they challenge the human body in several ways.
C6H12O6 (aq) ————> 2C2H5OH (aq) + 2CO2(g) + 2ATP.
Hence the ATP at the end of the equation is the amount of energy used to fulfil the process of fermentation. It can also be said that ethanol and carbon dioxide are produces by glucose .
So the equation of lactic acid fermentation can also be written as the following formula.
Glucose + 2ADP +2NAD+ → Pyruvic acid + 2 ATP +2NADH; Pyruvic acid + 2NADH → Lactic acids + 2 NAD+. The lactic acid fermentation reactants are Glucose, ADP, NADH.
So we can conclude that
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Can someone help me?
Answers
Vestigial structures provide evidence for the evolutionary past of organisms as they show how organisms relate to other organisms.
Vestigial structures are similar to homologous structures in that they provide evidence for evolutionary relationships but they are different in that vestigial structures are no longer in use organisms where they are found.
What are vestigial strucures?Vestigial structures are anatomical features that appear to have no purpose in a specific organism but are present because they served a purpose in the organism's evolutionary ancenstors.
An example of a vestigial structure is the coccyx in humans which once served as a tail.
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what evidence suggests that the changes were due to the transformation procedures you performed? 4. what advantage would there be for an organism to be able to turn on or o
Answers
The evidence that suggests that the changes were due to transformation procedures you performed is that the bacteria are growing in + plasmid LB broth.
The fact that bacteria grew in the ampicillin and + plasmid LB broth shows that the bacteria ingested the plasmid bearing the resistance gene. They would all have passed away if they hadn't. Also, the absence of growth in the - plasmid containing plates is proof that the plasmid interfered with bacterial development.
The resistant gene can be activated if ampicillin is present, allowing the bacteria to fight against ampicillin's lethal effects. The gene can be turned off if the bacteria isn't present, though. This would enable cells to almost manage their own demise.
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Complete question is:
What evidence suggests that the changes were due to the transformation procedures that you performed?
What advantage would there be for an organism to be able to turn on or off particular genes in response to certain conditions?
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. which position will he most likely prefer to assume?
Answers
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. he most likely prefer to legs drawn up position.
The ideal treatment for a person who has abdomen injuries
Help the patient to lie on the floor in the most comfortable position for them, usually on their back or on the side that isn't hurt, with both knees raised to relieve discomfort and spasms. Especially at the waist and neck, loosen any restrictive garments. As needed, provide the patient comfort by supporting them with cushions and blankets. Don't forget to reassure people.
Peritonitis
Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, a membrane that protects the organs inside your abdomen and line your inner abdominal wall. Peritonitis is typically brought on by a viral or bacterial infection. Peritonitis comes in two different forms: Bacterial peritonitis that develops suddenly.
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Choose the BEST EVIDENCE to support the CLAIM: Crater lake was formed when a volcanic cone collapsed and filled with water.
Answers
Option A-Sometimes the top of a volcano is blown off or collapses during an eruption, leaving a depression called caldera which filled with rainwater.
what is the difference between the nematocysts of a hydra and those of a sea anemone
Answers
Nematocysts are stinging cells that can be found in the phylum Cnidaria. These specialized cells can capture prey and deter predators. The hydra and sea anemone are two cnidarian species that possess nematocysts. While the nematocysts of hydra and sea anemone share similarities, they have some key differences.Nematocysts of a hydraHydra is a freshwater cnidarian that has a tube-like body and is a simple polyp.
Hydra has three types of nematocysts: spirocysts, microbasic mastigophores, and atrichous isorhizas. Each of these nematocysts have specific functions. For example, spirocysts help in wrapping the prey while microbasic mastigophores help in penetrating the prey's skin.Nematocysts of a sea anemoneSea anemones are marine cnidarians that have a sessile polyp body. They have a different type of nematocyst, acrorhagi. Acrorhagi are elongated nematocysts present on the oral disc and tentacles of sea anemones.
These nematocysts contain toxic threads that can be used as a weapon to attack other cnidarians. In addition to acrorhagi, sea anemones also possess spirocysts, microbasic mastigophores, and atrichous isorhizas, like hydra.To summarize, the nematocysts of hydra and those of sea anemone have a similar structure, but sea anemones also possess elongated nematocysts called acrorhagi that can be used as a weapon.
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Urgent!
Summarize how you use the periodic table to find out information about an atoms structure:
Answers
a) The TOUR de France is happening on the 26 th June 2021 from BREST to MÜR DE BRETAGNE. Mark cycles from Brest to MŨR DE BRETAGNE and Jay cycles to the opposite direction. Knowing that the distance between BREST and MÜR DE BRETAGNE is approximately 131Km and that both cyclists start cycling towards each other at the same time. Assuming that Mark cycles twice as fast as Jay does. If both cyclists meet one and half hour later, then at what average speed is each one of them traveling?
Answers
Jay is cycling at an average speed of 29.11 km/h and Mark is cycling at an average speed of 58.22 km/h.
The average speed of each of the cyclists will be different. Let’s use the formula, speed = distance/time to find their average speed.
The total distance between Brest and Mũr de Bretagne is approximately 131km.If both cyclists start cycling towards each other at the same time and meet one and a half hours later, their combined distance covered will be the total distance.
That is,
131 km = Mark’s distance + Jay’s distance
Let’s use the variable x to represent Jay’s speed.
Therefore,Mark’s speed = 2x km/h
Using the formula speed = distance/time, we can derive the following equations:
Mark’s distance = Mark’s speed × timeJay’s distance = Jay’s speed × time
Total distance = Mark’s distance + Jay’s distanceMark’s distance + Jay’s distance = 131 kmMark’s speed = 2x km/h
Time = 1.5 hours
Substituting the above into the equation:
Mark’s distance + Jay’s distance = Total distance(2x km/h) × 1.5h + (x km/h) × 1.5h = 131 km(3x km) + (1.5x km) = 131 km4.5x km = 131 kmX = 29.11 km/h
Jay’s speed = 29.11 km/h
Mark’s speed = 2x km/h= 2 × 29.11 km/h
= 58.22 km/h
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9. What will happen if you forget to water your plants?
Answers
Answer:
The plant will die
Explanation:
if you don't water your plants the plant will die
Answer: The tips and edges of the leaves dry out and turn brown. The entire leave will eventually turn brown and die.
Which of these best describes the relationship between smoke from factories and acid rain?
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A Smoke travels directly into clouds, creating acid rain.
B Smoke turns clouds black, which causes them to become more acidic and release black acid rain.
с Smoke increases greenhouse gases, which make the water in clouds more acidic so they release acid rain.
D Smoke wipes out all the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, increasing the acidity of clouds so they create acid rain.
The correct answer would be that smoke increases greenhouse gases, which make the water in clouds more acidic so they release acid rain.
A typical smoke consists of a mixture of gases, including greenhouse gases like methane, water vapor, and some oxides of acids. Hence, smoke has the capacity to cause acid rain because it increases the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. These gases dissolve in rainwater, causing it to form a weak solution of acid.
The correct option is C.
the homozygous recessive genotype 'aa' occurs with a frequency of 0.16 in a population of pandas that is in hardy-weinberg equilibrium. what is the frequency of the dominant allele (a) in the population?
Answers
The homozygous recessive genotype 'aa' occurs with a frequency of 0.16 in a population of pandas that is in hardy-weinberg equilibrium. Frequency of the dominant allele is 0.2 in the population.
An allele is a variation of the same sequence of nucleotides at the same site on a long DNA molecule, according to authoritative textbooks on genetics and evolution. "An allele is a different DNA sequence at a locus, and a locus (plural: loci) is the term for the chromosomal or genomic location of a gene or any other genetic element." Single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs, are the most fundamental alleles (SNP). Although they can also involve base-pair insertions and deletions that number in the thousands. The term "allele" is typically used to refer to a small number of alleles contained inside genes. For instance, the ABO gene, which controls the ABO blood classification, has six common alleles (variants). These six alleles alone, according to population genetics, account for practically every living person's ABO gene phenotype. The majority of observed alleles have little to no impact on how well the gene product they code for functions. But occasionally distinct genes might cause distinct phenotypic features, like differing colouring.
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What does a scientist observe in a chemical's reaction rate? the speed at which the reactants change to products over a given time. the speed at which the reactants are formed over a given time the speed at which the reactants reach chemical equilibrium over a given time , , the speed at which the reactants reach chemical equilibrium over a given time
Answers
Answer:
The speed at which the reactants change to products over a given time.
Explanation:
A chemical's reaction rate is the change in the concentration of a reactant or a product with time (in moles per second).
Remember that during a chemical reaction, reactants are converted to products. Or what is the same, products are formed at the expense of reactants. This can be represented:
reactants → products
Therefore, the progress of a reaction can be followed measuring the decrease in concentration of the reactants or the increase in concentration of the products.
According to the temperature and other parameters, the reaction rate can increase or decrease.
What is the super additive effect of Multisensory integration?
Answers
The super additive effect of multisensory integration refers to the phenomenon where the combined influence of multiple sensory inputs results in a greater impact on perception, cognition, or behavior than the sum of their individual effects.
In other words, when our brain processes information from multiple sensory sources simultaneously, it can lead to enhanced performance and a more robust understanding of our environment. Multisensory integration is the process through which our brain combines and integrates information from different sensory modalities, such as sight, sound, touch, taste, and smell. This integration enables us to perceive the world more accurately and efficiently, as it helps our brain to create a coherent and unified representation of external stimuli.
To illustrate the super additive effect of multisensory integration, consider a scenario where you are trying to locate a source of sound in a noisy environment. If you were to rely solely on auditory information, it might be challenging to pinpoint the exact location of the sound. However, if you also have visual cues, such as a person talking or a flashing light, the combined sensory inputs can help you determine the sound's source more accurately and quickly. This enhancement in performance can be explained by the fact that the brain is better equipped to process and interpret information when it receives input from multiple senses.
As a result, the super additive effect of multisensory integration allows us to better perceive, interpret, and respond to our surroundings, ultimately improving our ability to navigate and interact with the world around us.
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The indicated nerve innervates the ________ ___ ____, part of the flexor digitorum profundus, and most muscles of the hand.
Answers
The indicated nerve innervates the flexor muscles of the forearm, part of the flexor digitorum profundus, and most muscles of the hand.
The indicated nerve in the question is the median nerve. This nerve is responsible for providing motor and sensory innervation to the flexor muscles of the forearm, including the flexor digitorum profundus. Additionally, the median nerve innervates most muscles of the hand, except for the muscles in the thenar eminence (which are innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve and the ulnar nerve). Overall, the median nerve plays an important role in hand and wrist movement and sensation.
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Muscle tissue can be dark or light in color. Dark tissue cells use oxygen to release energy. Light tissue cells do not use oxygen to release energy.
Name the processs by which energy is released in the dark tissue cells.
Answers
respiration
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What is the definition of specific heat capacity?
O A. The amount of heat required to break the chemical bonds in 1 g of
a substance
B. The amount of heat required to form 1 g of a substance from its
elements
C. The amount of heat required for 1 g of a substance to undergo a
phase change
D. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of a
substance by 1°C
Answers
Option D is the correct option..
D. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of a
substance by 1°C
if an atom contains 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons, it's atomic number would be
Answers
It will be come out to be seven !
The atomic number is 3
The atomic number can be described as the number of protons that is present in the nucleus of an atom
The number of neutron is 4
The number of electrons is 3
The number of protons is 3
Since the number of protons is 3 then the atomic number is 3
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